|
1. True regarding the following
statements is all except
1. 500 ml of normal saline contains 77 mEq of Na+
2. 50 ml 25% dextrose gives 50 kcals of energy
3. 20 ml 15% potassium chloride contains 40 meq of K+
4. 10 ml of calcium chloride contains 9 meq of Ca++
|
Ans. 2
|
|
2. External ear is developed from
1. First branchial arch
2. First and second branchial arch
3. Second and Third branchial arch
4. Second branchial arch
|
Ans. 2
|
|
3. True about tympanic membrane is
all except
1. Tympanic membrane is attached to annulus ring made of fibrous cartilage
2. Lined by stratified epithelium in continuity with external auditory
canal
3. It is inclined at an angle of 35 degrees to the meatus
4. It has sensory supply via the auriculotemporal branch of the Mandibular
Nerve
|
Ans. 3
|
|
4. A 12 year old child came
presenting with nasal obstruction. On examination there was a bilobed polyp
protruding from the right nasal cavity. The management of this child is
1. Medical treatment till she is 18 years of age
2. Caldwell luc operation to be done
3. Endoscopic sinus operation
4. Polypectomy
|
Ans. 4
|
|
5. Treatment of choice for a
patient with inverted papilloma of right side of nasal cavity is
1. Partial Maxillectomy
2. Total Maxillectomy
3. Local excision
4. Radiotherapy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
6. A child presenting with history
of nasal obstruction since 5 years and with epistaxis since 1 year. CT scan
showed a tumor arising in left nasal cavity and extending into the
nasopharynx as well. It was decided that she requires surgery. The best
approach required for resection of
the tumor is
1. Transpalatal
2. Sublabial
3. Transmaxillary
4. Lateral rhinotomy
|
Ans. 4
|
|
7. A child presented with history
of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge
from the same side. The diagnosis is
1. Antrachoanal polyp
2. Foreign body
3. Angiofibroma
4. Rhinosporidiosis
|
Ans. 3
|
|
8. In which of the following
operations is the Eustachian tube closed
1. Modified radical mastoidectomy
2. Radical mastoidectomy
3. Endolymphatic decompression
4. Attico antrotomy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
9. Modified Radical operation is
done in all the following conditions except
1. Cholesteatoma
2. Coalescent mastoidectomy
3. Deafness with fascial palsy
4. Cholestatoma with sensory neural deafness
|
Ans. 2
|
|
10. Schwartz sign is seen in
1. Glomus jugulare
2. Otosclerosis
3. Tympanic granuloma
|
Ans. 2
|
|
11. Tympanic membrane and ossicles
efficiently transmit sound to the inner ear at which of the following
frequencies
1. 200-1000 hrz
2. 500-3000 hrz
3. 2000-3000 hrz
4. 3000-5000 hrz
|
Ans. 2
|
|
12. In a patient with acoustic
neuroma all are seen except
1. Fascial nerve may be involved
2. Tinnitus is present
3. Deafness
4. Acute episodes of vertigo occur
|
Ans. 1
|
|
13. A patient is suspected to have
vestibular shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
1. Contrast enhanced CT scan
2. Gadolinium enhanced MRI
3. SPECT
4. PET scan
|
Ans. 2
|
|
14. In a patient with trauma with
middle cranial fossa fracture complains of loss of tear secretion. This
occurs due to injury to
1. Ciliary ganglion
2. Greater superficial Petrosal nerve
3. Stellate ganglion
4. Trigeminal nerve
|
Ans. 2
|
|
15. Sensory nerve supply over the
angle of mandible is due to
1. Superficial cervical nerve
2. Greater auricular nerve
3. Posterior auricular nerve
4. Lingual nerve
|
Ans. 2
|
|
16. True regarding venous drainage
of thyroid is all except
1. Middle thyroid vein drains into internal jugular vein
2. Inferior thyroid vein drains into external jugular vein
3. The veins of thyroid are valveless
4. Superficial thyroid vein is closely related with external branch of
superficial laryngeal
nerve
|
Ans. 2
|
|
17. All the following tumors of the
larynx involve cervical lymph nodes except
1. Transglottic
2. Glottic
3. Supraglottic
4. Infraglottic
|
Ans. 2
|
|
18. Most common tumor to have
metastatic involvement of upper deep cervical lymph nodes is
1. Pharynx
2. Colon
3. Breast
4. Kidney
|
Ans. 1
|
|
19. All are causes of grey white
membrane in throat except
1. Streptococcus
2. Ludwig angina
3. adenovirus
4. Diphtheria
|
Ans. 2
|
|
20. Which of the following acts on
the uveoscleral tract
1. Levobunol
2. Epinephrine
3. Latanoprost
4. Timolol maleate
|
Ans. 3
|
|
21. Fibrous attachment of lid to
the eye globe is known as
1. Symbelpharon
2. Ankyloblepharon
3. Ectropion
4. Syndesmosis
|
Ans. 1
|
|
22. In a susceptible patient which
of the following drugs precipitate glaucoma
1. Phenylalanine
2. Phentolamine
3. Homatropine
4. Epinephrine
|
Ans. 3
|
|
23. In a patient with cataract,
capsulotomy with removal of lens nucleus followed by aspiration of cortical
content is known as
1. Intracapsular cataract extraction
2. Extracapsular cataract extraction
3. Discission
4. Lensectomy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
24. Dilator pupillae is supplied by
1. Adrenergic fibres of Oculomotor nerve
2. Cholinergic fibers of Oculomotor nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Fascial nerve
|
Ans. 1
|
|
25. A patient presented with
unilateral ptosis and diplopia and on examination was found to have
decreased movement of eyeball in all directions. The patient also complains
of difficulty reading newsprint. The diagnosis is
1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Oculomotor palsy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
26. In Oculomotor palsy all the
following are seen except
1. Ptosis
2. Eye deviated upward and medially
3. Mydriasis
4. Proptosis
|
Ans. 2
|
|
27. Cherry red spot is seen in
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Central retinal artery occlusion
3. Optic neuritis
4. Adreno leukodystrophy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
28. Anisometropia means
1. Both the eye are not oriented in the same parallel axis
2. There is high difference of refractive errors between the two eye
3. Sublaxation of one of the eye
4. Difference in image sizes’
|
Ans. 2
|
|
29. In a patient presenting with
herpes zoster ophthalmicus. All are true except
1. It is caused by varicella
2. It is lodged in the gasserian ganglion
3. Corneal involvement is always associated with tip of nasal involvement
and ulcers
4. Punctate Keratitis may coalesce and unite to form dendritic ulcers which
simulate
Herpes simplex
|
Ans. 4
|
|
30. Night blindness is caused by
all except
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Cone dystrophy
3. Xeroderma pigmentosa
4. ***
|
Ans. 2
|
|
31. Fleicher’s ring is seen in
1. Pterygium
2. Chalcosis
3. Keratoconus
4. Trauma
|
Ans. 3
|
|
32. All the following are true
regarding acute anterior uveitis in Ankylosing spondylitis except
1. More common in females
2. Recurrent attacks occur
3. Fibrous reaction in anterior chamber
4. Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
|
Ans. 1
|
|
33. In a patient with color blindness
all the following are true except
1. It is a misnomer as it is actually a color defect and not blindness
2. There is normal visual acuity
3. Most common anomaly is blue green defect
4. More common in males
|
Ans. 3
|
|
34. True regarding point source epidemic
is
1. Secondary waves occur
2. There is a rapid rise in the wave which platues
3. All cases occur in a single incubation period of the disease
4. It is propagative
|
Ans. 3
|
|
35. Positive predictive value is
most affected by
1. Prevalence
2. Sensitivity
3. Specificity
4. Relative risk
|
Ans. 1
|
|
36. Which of the following is true
about case control studies
1. Attributable risk is calculated
2. Gives central tendency
3. Prevalence can be calculated
4. Incidence can be calculated
|
Ans. 2
|
|
37. In a population to prevent
coronary artery disease changing harmful lifestyles by education is
referred to as
1. High risk strategy
2. Primary prevention
3. Secondary prevention
4. Tertiary prevention
|
Ans. 2
|
|
38. All the following get immune
protection from maternal antibodies except
1. Pertussis
2. Tetanus
3. Measles
4. Diphtheria
|
Ans. 1
|
|
39. Live vaccines are all except
1. Oral polio vaccine
2. MMR
3. DPT
4. Hepatitis B
|
Ans. 1&2
|
|
40. Which of the following is true
about tuberculin test
1. It gives the immune status of patient
2. It may be negative in dissociated tuberculosis
3. It tells about prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis only
4. It is highly positive in a post measles case
|
Ans. 2
|
|
41. True about measles is all
except
1. Kopliks spots appear as rash disappears
2. It is prevented by both active and passive immunization
3. Otitis media and meningitis are the most common complications
4. TB is aggravated in post measles
|
Ans. 1
|
|
42. True regarding pertussis is all
except
1. It is associated with an inspiratory whoop
2. It is a droplet infection
3. Parapertussis causes more sever disease then pertussis
4. Pneumonia is most complication
|
Ans. 3
|
|
43. Disease under WHO surveillance
are all except
1. Malaria
2. Relapsing fever
3. Polio
4. Diphtheria
|
Ans. 4
|
|
44. In a 2 year old child calories
as supplied in ICDS diet is
1. 200 k cal
2. 300-400 k cal
3. 500-600 k cal
4. 1000 k cal
|
Ans. 2
|
|
45. All the following are true
regarding echinococcus granulosis except
1. Man is intermediate host
2. Infection is most commonly from dogs
3. Eggs ingestion are the portal of entry
4. Demonstartion of eggs in stool is diagnostic
|
Ans. 4
|
|
46. Which of the following helps in
diagnosis , in biopsy of brain specimen in Rabies
1. Asteroid bodies
2. Sheurmann bodies
3. Negri bodies
4. Lewy bodies
|
Ans. 3
|
|
47. Diagnostic investigation in
Tuberculosis is
1. Auramine Rhodamine stain
2. Sputum examination
3. Sputum culture
4. PCR
|
Ans. 4
|
|
48. All the following are true
about malaria due to plasmodium vivax except
1. Merozoites can reinfect hepatocytes
2. Infected erythrocytes are pale and enlarged in size
3. Incubation period is 48 hrs
4. Commonly associated with greater then 10% parasitemia
|
Ans. 1
|
|
49. In a pregnant lady diagnosed to
have malaria due to P.vivax should be treated with
1. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine
2. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine and pyramethamine
3. Treatment with chloroquine and radical treatment with oribiquin
4. Presumptive treatment with Quinine
|
Ans. 3
|
|
50. True regarding endotoxin is
1. It is composed of lipopolysacharide which is part of cell membrane
2. Implicated in causation of Toxic shock syndrome
3. It is secreted by the bacteria
4. It is present in gram positive organisms
|
Ans. 1
|
|
51. All the following can be grown
in cell free culture media except
1. Mycoplasma
2. Rickettsia
3. Mycobacteria
4. Campylobacter
|
Ans. 2
|
|
52. Which of following is a motile
organism
1. Pseudomonas
2. Klebsiella
3. Streptococcus
4. Campylobacter
|
Ans. 1
|
|
53. In a splenectomized patient
there is increased chances of infection by all the following organisms
except
1. Pneumococci
2. Klebsiella
3. H.Influenza
4. Staphylococcus aureus
|
Ans. 4
|
|
54. The common causes of Acute
otitis media in children are
1. Branhamella and Moraxella
2. Streptococci and pertussis
3. Streptococci Pneumoniae and H.Influenza
4. E.coli and Pseudomonas
|
Ans. 3
|
|
55. Most common cause of community
acquired neonatal meningitis is
1. Pseudomonas
2. Entamoeba coli
3. Neisseria Meningitis
4. Klebsiella
|
Ans. 4
|
|
56. In India which of the following
is true regarding the cause of travelers diarrhea
1. Giardiasis
2. E.coli
3. Amebiasis
4. Idiopathic without any causative organism
|
Ans. 2
|
|
57. The bubo caused by plague
differs from those due to other causes by all except
1. Gradual onset
2. Tenderness
3. Absence of signs of ascending cholangitis
4. Associated systemic toxic symptoms
|
Ans. 1
|
|
58. A child presented with diarrhea
followed by development of rashes and petechiae. The diagnosis is
1. Campylobacter
2. Shigella
3. Giardia
4. Vibrio cholera
|
Ans. 2
|
|
59. Most common cause of
osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is
1. Salmonella
2. Staphylococci
3. Pseudomonas
4. E.coli
|
Ans. 2
|
|
60. True regarding Typhoid is
1. Stool culture is always indicative of disease
2. Blood culture be used for diagnosis in the 1st 7 to 10 days
3. Urine culture is positive in second week
4. Serology in 1st week
|
Ans. 2
|
|
61. Mucosal immunity is due to
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE
|
Ans. 2
|
|
62. All are stimulants of immune
system except
1. Il-1
2. Il-6
3. Il-10
4. TNF alpha
|
Ans. 3
|
|
63. All the following are true
about primary CNS lymphoma except
1. Most common type is diffuse histiocytic type
2. Most are of T-cell origin
3. Multicentric location
4. Causes focal signs
|
Ans. 2
|
|
64. To obtain double stranded cDNA
from mRNA the enzyme involved is
1. DNA polymerase
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Ligase
4. Polymerase II
|
Ans. 2
|
|
65. The mother is suffering from
HIV. The earliest time where infection is seen in the fetus is
1. 8 weeks
2. 15 weeks
3. 28 weeks
4. 22 weeks
|
Ans. 1
|
|
66. Autoimmune arthritis is seen in
1. Rhuematoid arthritis
2. Osteoarthritis
3. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Suppurative arthritis
|
Ans. 1
|
|
67. Genetic aberration leading to
severe immunological deficiency is seen in
1. Xanthine oxidase
2. Adenosine deaminase
3. Superoxide dismutase
|
Ans. 2
|
|
68. Maternal antibodies causing
heart block in newborn is
1. Antihistone antibodies
2. Anti Rho antibodies
3. Anti Jo
4. Anti ds DNA
|
Ans. 2
|
|
69. All the following are true
regarding drug induced lupus except
1. CNS involvement is rare
2. Procainamide and Hydralazine are the most common causes
3. Nephritis is common
4. Anti histone antibodies are present
|
Ans. 3
|
|
70. All the following are true
about soft tissue tumors except
1. Liposarcoma is the most common and arises from lipoma
2. In adult rhabdomyosarcomas are resistant to radiotherapy and spread to
lymphnodes
3. Dermatofibrosarcoma protruberance is a malignant tumor and often
presents with
metastasis
4. Rhabdomyosarcoma is common in children
|
Ans. 3
|
|
71. Structure present in bed of
stomach is(**)
1. Left suprarenal gland
2. Splenic artery
3. Transverse mesocolon
4. 4th part of the duodenum
|
Ans. 4
|
|
72. Which of the following is the
most common cause of suppurative cholangitis
1. Hepatic vein
2. CBD stone
3. Sepsis
4. Empyema
|
Ans. 2
|
|
73. Caput medusea is obvious in all
the following except
1. Budd Chiari syndrome
2. Extra hepatic portal vein thrombosis
3. Non cirrhotic peri portal fibrosis
4. Alcoholic cirrhosis
|
Ans. 2
|
|
74. True regarding Familial
adenomatous polyposis are all the following except
1. 100% chances of malignancy over a period of time
2. Adenomatous polyps occur in colon
3. Equal incidence in males and females
4. Total colectomy early in childhood is the treatment of choice
|
Ans. 4
|
|
75. All the following are causes of
steatorrhea except
1. Chronic pancreatitis
2. Tropical sprue
3. Whipple’s disease
4. Intestinal amebiasis
|
Ans. 4
|
|
76. On radiography widened duodenal
‘C’ loop with irregular mucosa on hypotonic
duodenography is due to
1. Chronic pancreatitis
2. Carcinoma head of pancreas
3. Duodenal ulcer
4. Duodenal ileus
|
Ans. 2
|
|
77. Causes of pancreatitis are all
the following except
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Chronic alcoholism
3. Hypocalcemia
4. CBD stone
|
Ans. 3
|
|
78. Biliary secretion of liver is
induced by
1. CCK
2. Glucagon
3. Secretin
4. Insulin
|
Ans. 3
|
|
79. After splenectomy earliest
changes seen are, increase in
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Platelets
4. Nuetrophils
|
Ans. 3
|
|
80. True regarding management of
traumatic pnuemothorax is
1. Immediate ICD tube insertion
2. CT scan should be done to confirm pulmonary leak
3. Intermittent needle aspiration
4. Open thoracotomy done and pulmonary leak sealed
|
Ans. 1
|
|
81. True regarding deep burn is all
the following except
1. Loss of pain
2. Charred appearance
3. Loss of skin reaction
4. Presence of blisters
|
Ans. 4
|
|
82. Acute gastric dilatation is
best prevented by
1. Nasogastric tube
2. Gastrostomy
3. Stopping of oral feeds until improvement in condition
4. Steroids
|
Ans. 1
|
|
83. Which of the following azoles
is the best for treatment of Aspergillosis
1. Itraconazole
2. Ketoconazole
3. Micanazole
4. Fluconazole
|
Ans. 1
|
|
84. Beta II receptors are found in
1. Arterioles
2. Veins
3. SA node
4. Myocardium
|
Ans. 1
|
|
85. Theophylline levels are
increased in all the following except
1. Erythromycin
2. Cimetidine
3. Congestive heart failure
4. Smoking
|
Ans. 4
|
|
86. Peripheral neuropathy is caused
by all the following except
1. Vincristine
2. Methotrexate
3. Alcohol
4. INH
|
Ans. 2
|
|
87. Which of the following ATT
drugs is completely avoided in pregnancy
1. Rifampicin
2. INH
3. Pyrazinamide
4. Streptomycin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
88. All the following are
complications of Phenytoin except
1. Megaloblastic anemia
2. Ataxia
3. Ostoemalacia
4. Hypoglycemia
|
Ans. 4
|
|
89. Tamoxifen used in the treatment
of breast carcinoma leads to
1. Ostoeporosis
2. Endometrial hyperplasia
3. Fibroadenoma breast
4. Ovarian tumours
|
Ans. 2
|
|
90. All the following complications
are seen with use of oral contraceptives except
1. MI
2. Venous thrombosis
3. Stroke
4. Intracranial hemorrhage
|
Ans. 4
|
|
91. Insulin mediated glucose entry
is most important in which of the following organs
1. Erythrocytes
2. Hepatocytes
3. Brain
4. Muscle
|
Ans. 4
|
|
92. Corticosteroids given to mother
prevent all the following complications in the newborn except
1. Hyaline membrane disease
2. Intraventricular hemorrhage
3. Necrotizing enterocolitis
4. Bronchopulmonary aplasia
|
Ans. 4
|
|
93. All the following are
bactericidal except
1. Rifampicin
2. Cephalexin
3. INH
4. Oxytetracycline
|
Ans. 4
|
|
94. All the following are used in
preaneasthetic medication except
1. Morphine
2. Atropine
3. Diazepam
4. Vecuronium
|
Ans. 1
|
|
95. Lowest dose of ethinyl
estradiol used in combination contraceptive which has been shown to be
effective is
1. 20 micro gms
2. 30 micro gms
3. 50 micro gms
4. 35 micro gms
|
Ans. 1
|
|
96. Morphine for pain is not to be
used in which of the following conditions
1. Biliary colic
2. Terminal cancer pain
3. Post operative pain
4. Myocardial infarction
|
Ans. 1
|
|
97. Post exposure hepatit is is
seen in
1. Methoxyflurane
2. Halothane
3. Succinylcoline
4. Ether
|
Ans. 2
|
|
98. Drug induced Lupus is caused by
1. Procainamide
2. Rifampicin
3. Oral contraceptives
4. Ranitidine
|
Ans. 1
|
|
99. Dissociate anesthesia is caused
by
1. Ketamine
2. Halothane
3. Succinyl choline
4. Mivacuruim
|
Ans. 1
|
|
100. All the following anesthetics
sensitize the heart except
1. Methoxyflurane
2. Diethylether
3. Halothane
4. Chloroform
|
Ans. 2
|
|
101. Hoffman’s mechanism of drug
elimination is seen in which of the following drugs
1. Gallamine
2. Mivacurium
3. Methoxyflurane
4. Atracuruim
|
Ans. 4
|
|
102. Megaloblastic anemia is caused
by all the following except
1. Nitrous oxide
2. Phenobarbitone
3. Primidone
4. INH
|
Ans. 4
|
|
103. Drug of choice for acute gout
is
1. Probenicid
2. Allopurinol
3. Sulphinpyrazone
4. Indomethacin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
104. The treatment of choice for
Intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis is
1. Diloxanide furoate
2. Chloroquin
3. Metronidazole
4. Tetracycline
|
Ans. 3
|
|
105. Which of the following factors
require Vitamin K for its synthesis
1. Prothrombin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Thromboplastin
4. Hagerman’s factor
|
Ans. 1
|
|
106. Deficiency of which of the
following factors does not cause an abnormality of the intrinsic pathway
1. Factor IX
2. Factor VII
3. Factor XI
4. Factor VIII
|
Ans. 2
|
|
107. All the following are used in
the treatment of hypertensive emergencies except
1. Prazosin
2. Nitroglycerin
3. Sodium Nitropruside
4. Nifedipine
|
Ans. 1
|
|
108. Isotonic saline when infused
IV show which of the following changes
1. Increase in osmolality in ECF
2. Decrease in Osmolality in ECF
3. No change in osmolality in ECF
4. Decrease in osmolality in ICF
|
Ans. 3
|
|
109. A patient with scrotal
filaraisis was treated with DEC. Which of the following would show that the
adult filaria is killed
1. Disappearance of microfilaria from blood
2. Appearance of filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound
3. Disappearance of filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound
4. Absence of microfilaria in scrotal fluid
|
Ans. 3
|
|
110. Interferons are used for all
the following except
1. Fungal infections
2. Viral infections
3. Immunomodulation
4. To induce differentiation of immune cells
|
Ans. 1
|
|
111. Amide linked local anesthetics
are all the following except
1. Procaine
2. Lidocaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Mepivacaine
|
Ans. 1
|
|
112. All the following act on
membrane receptors except
1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. GnRH
4. Glucagon
|
Ans. 3
|
|
113. Which of the following act via
cAMP
1. LH
2. Testosterone
3. Thyroxin
4. Estrogen
|
Ans. 1
|
|
114. Which of the following belongs
to steroid superfamily
1. Insulin
2. Vitamin D3
3. Epinephrine
4. Growth hormone
|
Ans. 2
|
|
115. Epinephrine causes
glycogenolysis by
1. Adenyl cyclase
2. Conversion of diphospoglycogen synthase to phosphoglycogen synthase
3. Phosphorylase
4. Adenyl kinase
|
Ans. 1
|
|
116. Agranulocytosis is caused by
all the following except
1. Gold
2. Carbimazole
3. Phenytoin
4. Rifampicin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
117. All the following are natural
vasodilators except
1. Endothelin
2. Bradykinin
3. Histamine
4. Nitric oxide
|
Ans. 1
|
|
118. In a patient with allergic
asthma the most important mediators are
1. Prostaglandins
2. Leukotrienes
3. Thromboxanes
4. Bradykinin
|
Ans. 2
|
|
119. Paranoid psychosis occurs on
consumption of
1. Barbiturates
2. Carbamazine
3. Cocaine
4. Amphetamines
|
Ans. 4
|
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120. All the following are true
regarding digoxin except
1. Dose is reduced in liver failure
2. Increased contractility of cardia
3. Decreased heart rate
4. Dose reduced in renal failure
|
Ans. 1
|
|
121. In coronary artery disease the
role of Beta blockers in decreasing the symptoms is by all the following
mechanism’s except
1. Decreasing the resting heart rate
2. Increasing the coronary blood flow
3. Decreasing cardiac force
4. Preventing exercise induced tachycardia
|
Ans. 2
|
|
122. Which of the following muscles
are used in the action involved in sucking of a straw
1. Orbicularis oris and buccinator
2. Orbicularis and depressor angular oris
3. Levator angularis oris and depressor angularis oris
4. Levator angularis and Zygomaticus
|
Ans. 4
|
|
123. Axillary nerve supplies
deltoid muscle and
1. Teres major
2. Pectoralis minor
3. Subscapularis
4. Teres minor
|
Ans. 4
|
|
124. Injury to common peronial
nerve causes which of the following
1. Loss of sensation over sole
2. Foot drop
3. Weakness of medial compartment muscles
4. Loss of sensation over lat aspect of foot
|
Ans. 2
|
|
125. Structures seen in posterior
triangle of neck are all the following except
1. Accessory nerve
2. Posterior belly of omohyoid
3. Stylohyoid
4. Transverse cervical artery
|
Ans. 3
|
|
126. All the following muscles are
involved in forced inspiration except
1. Diaphragm
2. Pectoralis minor
3. Sternomastoid muscle
4. Lattisimuss Dorsi
|
Ans. 4
|
|
127. All the following muscles are
involved in dorsiflexion except
1. Tibialis anterior
2. Extensor hallusis longus
3. Peroneus tertius
4. Plantaris
|
Ans. 4
|
|
128. Sensory supply of duramater of
middle cranial fossa is by
1. Maxillary nerve
2. Anterior ethmoidal
3. Anterior cervical
4. Mandibular
|
Ans. 4
|
|
129. Longest ligament around the
hip joint is
1. Iliofemoral
2. Ischiofemoral
3. Pubofemoral
4. Ligamentum teres
|
Ans. 1
|
|
130. Ligamentum teres arises from
1. Umblical artery
2. Ductus venosus
3. Umblical vien
4. Lessor omentum
|
Ans. 3
|
|
131. True about structures around
knee joint is
1. Anterior cruciate arises from anterior aspect of intercondylar crest
2. Popliteus is related posteriorly to lateral ligament
3. Anterior end of medial meniscus is broader then posterior
4. Suprapatellar bursa is in front of Quadriceps tendon
|
Ans. 1
|
|
132. Which of the following is a
hinge joint
1. Elbow
2. Metacarpophalengeal joint
3. Atlanto axial
4. Wrist
|
Ans. 1
|
|
133. Parasympathetic fibres arise
from all the following cranial nerves except
1. Vagus
2. Oculomotor
3. Hypoglossal
4. Glossopharyngeal
|
Ans. 3
|
|
134. Which of the following is true
about diverticulosis
1. High fibre containing diet is associated with increased incidence of
Diverticulosis
2. It is premalignant
3. In India >20% of the population above the age of 40 years is affected
by diverticulosis
4. Management is essentially conservative in divertuculosis
|
Ans. 4 |
(Sanjay
Gandhi Institute of Post Graduate Medical Sciences)