|
1. True regarding the following
statements is all except
1. 500 ml of normal saline contains 77 mEq of Na+
2. 50 ml 25% dextrose gives 50 kcals of energy
3. 20 ml 15% potassium chloride contains 40 meq of K+
4. 10 ml of calcium chloride contains 9 meq of Ca++
|
Ans. 2
|
|
2. External ear is developed from
1. First branchial arch
2. First and second branchial arch
3. Second and Third branchial arch
4. Second branchial arch
|
Ans. 2
|
|
3. True about tympanic membrane is
all except
1. Tympanic membrane is attached to annulus ring made of fibrous cartilage
2. Lined by stratified epithelium in continuity with external auditory
canal
3. It is inclined at an angle of 35 degrees to the meatus
4. It has sensory supply via the auriculotemporal branch of the Mandibular
Nerve
|
Ans. 3
|
|
4. A 12 year old child came
presenting with nasal obstruction. On examination there was a bilobed polyp
protruding from the right nasal cavity. The management of this child is
1. Medical treatment till she is 18 years of age
2. Caldwell luc operation to be done
3. Endoscopic sinus operation
4. Polypectomy
|
Ans. 4
|
|
5. Treatment of choice for a
patient with inverted papilloma of right side of nasal cavity is
1. Partial Maxillectomy
2. Total Maxillectomy
3. Local excision
4. Radiotherapy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
6. A child presenting with history
of nasal obstruction since 5 years and with epistaxis since 1 year. CT scan
showed a tumor arising in left nasal cavity and extending into the
nasopharynx as well. It was decided that she requires surgery. The best
approach required for resection of
the tumor is
1. Transpalatal
2. Sublabial
3. Transmaxillary
4. Lateral rhinotomy
|
Ans. 4
|
|
7. A child presented with history
of unilateral purulent nasal discharge with occasional bloody discharge
from the same side. The diagnosis is
1. Antrachoanal polyp
2. Foreign body
3. Angiofibroma
4. Rhinosporidiosis
|
Ans. 3
|
|
8. In which of the following
operations is the Eustachian tube closed
1. Modified radical mastoidectomy
2. Radical mastoidectomy
3. Endolymphatic decompression
4. Attico antrotomy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
9. Modified Radical operation is
done in all the following conditions except
1. Cholesteatoma
2. Coalescent mastoidectomy
3. Deafness with fascial palsy
4. Cholestatoma with sensory neural deafness
|
Ans. 2
|
|
10. Schwartz sign is seen in
1. Glomus jugulare
2. Otosclerosis
3. Tympanic granuloma
|
Ans. 2
|
|
11. Tympanic membrane and ossicles
efficiently transmit sound to the inner ear at which of the following
frequencies
1. 200-1000 hrz
2. 500-3000 hrz
3. 2000-3000 hrz
4. 3000-5000 hrz
|
Ans. 2
|
|
12. In a patient with acoustic
neuroma all are seen except
1. Fascial nerve may be involved
2. Tinnitus is present
3. Deafness
4. Acute episodes of vertigo occur
|
Ans. 1
|
|
13. A patient is suspected to have
vestibular shwanomma. The investigation of choice for its diagnosis is
1. Contrast enhanced CT scan
2. Gadolinium enhanced MRI
3. SPECT
4. PET scan
|
Ans. 2
|
|
14. In a patient with trauma with
middle cranial fossa fracture complains of loss of tear secretion. This
occurs due to injury to
1. Ciliary ganglion
2. Greater superficial Petrosal nerve
3. Stellate ganglion
4. Trigeminal nerve
|
Ans. 2
|
|
15. Sensory nerve supply over the
angle of mandible is due to
1. Superficial cervical nerve
2. Greater auricular nerve
3. Posterior auricular nerve
4. Lingual nerve
|
Ans. 2
|
|
16. True regarding venous drainage
of thyroid is all except
1. Middle thyroid vein drains into internal jugular vein
2. Inferior thyroid vein drains into external jugular vein
3. The veins of thyroid are valveless
4. Superficial thyroid vein is closely related with external branch of
superficial laryngeal
nerve
|
Ans. 2
|
|
17. All the following tumors of the
larynx involve cervical lymph nodes except
1. Transglottic
2. Glottic
3. Supraglottic
4. Infraglottic
|
Ans. 2
|
|
18. Most common tumor to have
metastatic involvement of upper deep cervical lymph nodes is
1. Pharynx
2. Colon
3. Breast
4. Kidney
|
Ans. 1
|
|
19. All are causes of grey white
membrane in throat except
1. Streptococcus
2. Ludwig angina
3. adenovirus
4. Diphtheria
|
Ans. 2
|
|
20. Which of the following acts on
the uveoscleral tract
1. Levobunol
2. Epinephrine
3. Latanoprost
4. Timolol maleate
|
Ans. 3
|
|
21. Fibrous attachment of lid to
the eye globe is known as
1. Symbelpharon
2. Ankyloblepharon
3. Ectropion
4. Syndesmosis
|
Ans. 1
|
|
22. In a susceptible patient which
of the following drugs precipitate glaucoma
1. Phenylalanine
2. Phentolamine
3. Homatropine
4. Epinephrine
|
Ans. 3
|
|
23. In a patient with cataract,
capsulotomy with removal of lens nucleus followed by aspiration of cortical
content is known as
1. Intracapsular cataract extraction
2. Extracapsular cataract extraction
3. Discission
4. Lensectomy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
24. Dilator pupillae is supplied by
1. Adrenergic fibres of Oculomotor nerve
2. Cholinergic fibers of Oculomotor nerve
3. Trigeminal nerve
4. Fascial nerve
|
Ans. 1
|
|
25. A patient presented with
unilateral ptosis and diplopia and on examination was found to have
decreased movement of eyeball in all directions. The patient also complains
of difficulty reading newsprint. The diagnosis is
1. Myasthenia gravis
2. Oculomotor palsy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
26. In Oculomotor palsy all the
following are seen except
1. Ptosis
2. Eye deviated upward and medially
3. Mydriasis
4. Proptosis
|
Ans. 2
|
|
27. Cherry red spot is seen in
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Central retinal artery occlusion
3. Optic neuritis
4. Adreno leukodystrophy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
28. Anisometropia means
1. Both the eye are not oriented in the same parallel axis
2. There is high difference of refractive errors between the two eye
3. Sublaxation of one of the eye
4. Difference in image sizes’
|
Ans. 2
|
|
29. In a patient presenting with
herpes zoster ophthalmicus. All are true except
1. It is caused by varicella
2. It is lodged in the gasserian ganglion
3. Corneal involvement is always associated with tip of nasal involvement
and ulcers
4. Punctate Keratitis may coalesce and unite to form dendritic ulcers which
simulate
Herpes simplex
|
Ans. 4
|
|
30. Night blindness is caused by
all except
1. Retinitis pigmentosa
2. Cone dystrophy
3. Xeroderma pigmentosa
4. ***
|
Ans. 2
|
|
31. Fleicher’s ring is seen in
1. Pterygium
2. Chalcosis
3. Keratoconus
4. Trauma
|
Ans. 3
|
|
32. All the following are true
regarding acute anterior uveitis in Ankylosing spondylitis except
1. More common in females
2. Recurrent attacks occur
3. Fibrous reaction in anterior chamber
4. Narrowing of joint spaces and sclerosis of sacroiliac joint
|
Ans. 1
|
|
33. In a patient with color blindness
all the following are true except
1. It is a misnomer as it is actually a color defect and not blindness
2. There is normal visual acuity
3. Most common anomaly is blue green defect
4. More common in males
|
Ans. 3
|
|
34. True regarding point source epidemic
is
1. Secondary waves occur
2. There is a rapid rise in the wave which platues
3. All cases occur in a single incubation period of the disease
4. It is propagative
|
Ans. 3
|
|
35. Positive predictive value is
most affected by
1. Prevalence
2. Sensitivity
3. Specificity
4. Relative risk
|
Ans. 1
|
|
36. Which of the following is true
about case control studies
1. Attributable risk is calculated
2. Gives central tendency
3. Prevalence can be calculated
4. Incidence can be calculated
|
Ans. 2
|
|
37. In a population to prevent
coronary artery disease changing harmful lifestyles by education is
referred to as
1. High risk strategy
2. Primary prevention
3. Secondary prevention
4. Tertiary prevention
|
Ans. 2
|
|
38. All the following get immune
protection from maternal antibodies except
1. Pertussis
2. Tetanus
3. Measles
4. Diphtheria
|
Ans. 1
|
|
39. Live vaccines are all except
1. Oral polio vaccine
2. MMR
3. DPT
4. Hepatitis B
|
Ans. 1&2
|
|
40. Which of the following is true
about tuberculin test
1. It gives the immune status of patient
2. It may be negative in dissociated tuberculosis
3. It tells about prior exposure to Mycobacterium tuberculosis only
4. It is highly positive in a post measles case
|
Ans. 2
|
|
41. True about measles is all
except
1. Kopliks spots appear as rash disappears
2. It is prevented by both active and passive immunization
3. Otitis media and meningitis are the most common complications
4. TB is aggravated in post measles
|
Ans. 1
|
|
42. True regarding pertussis is all
except
1. It is associated with an inspiratory whoop
2. It is a droplet infection
3. Parapertussis causes more sever disease then pertussis
4. Pneumonia is most complication
|
Ans. 3
|
|
43. Disease under WHO surveillance
are all except
1. Malaria
2. Relapsing fever
3. Polio
4. Diphtheria
|
Ans. 4
|
|
44. In a 2 year old child calories
as supplied in ICDS diet is
1. 200 k cal
2. 300-400 k cal
3. 500-600 k cal
4. 1000 k cal
|
Ans. 2
|
|
45. All the following are true
regarding echinococcus granulosis except
1. Man is intermediate host
2. Infection is most commonly from dogs
3. Eggs ingestion are the portal of entry
4. Demonstartion of eggs in stool is diagnostic
|
Ans. 4
|
|
46. Which of the following helps in
diagnosis , in biopsy of brain specimen in Rabies
1. Asteroid bodies
2. Sheurmann bodies
3. Negri bodies
4. Lewy bodies
|
Ans. 3
|
|
47. Diagnostic investigation in
Tuberculosis is
1. Auramine Rhodamine stain
2. Sputum examination
3. Sputum culture
4. PCR
|
Ans. 4
|
|
48. All the following are true
about malaria due to plasmodium vivax except
1. Merozoites can reinfect hepatocytes
2. Infected erythrocytes are pale and enlarged in size
3. Incubation period is 48 hrs
4. Commonly associated with greater then 10% parasitemia
|
Ans. 1
|
|
49. In a pregnant lady diagnosed to
have malaria due to P.vivax should be treated with
1. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine
2. Presumptive treatment with chloroquine and pyramethamine
3. Treatment with chloroquine and radical treatment with oribiquin
4. Presumptive treatment with Quinine
|
Ans. 3
|
|
50. True regarding endotoxin is
1. It is composed of lipopolysacharide which is part of cell membrane
2. Implicated in causation of Toxic shock syndrome
3. It is secreted by the bacteria
4. It is present in gram positive organisms
|
Ans. 1
|
|
51. All the following can be grown
in cell free culture media except
1. Mycoplasma
2. Rickettsia
3. Mycobacteria
4. Campylobacter
|
Ans. 2
|
|
52. Which of following is a motile
organism
1. Pseudomonas
2. Klebsiella
3. Streptococcus
4. Campylobacter
|
Ans. 1
|
|
53. In a splenectomized patient
there is increased chances of infection by all the following organisms
except
1. Pneumococci
2. Klebsiella
3. H.Influenza
4. Staphylococcus aureus
|
Ans. 4
|
|
54. The common causes of Acute
otitis media in children are
1. Branhamella and Moraxella
2. Streptococci and pertussis
3. Streptococci Pneumoniae and H.Influenza
4. E.coli and Pseudomonas
|
Ans. 3
|
|
55. Most common cause of community
acquired neonatal meningitis is
1. Pseudomonas
2. Entamoeba coli
3. Neisseria Meningitis
4. Klebsiella
|
Ans. 4
|
|
56. In India which of the following
is true regarding the cause of travelers diarrhea
1. Giardiasis
2. E.coli
3. Amebiasis
4. Idiopathic without any causative organism
|
Ans. 2
|
|
57. The bubo caused by plague
differs from those due to other causes by all except
1. Gradual onset
2. Tenderness
3. Absence of signs of ascending cholangitis
4. Associated systemic toxic symptoms
|
Ans. 1
|
|
58. A child presented with diarrhea
followed by development of rashes and petechiae. The diagnosis is
1. Campylobacter
2. Shigella
3. Giardia
4. Vibrio cholera
|
Ans. 2
|
|
59. Most common cause of
osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is
1. Salmonella
2. Staphylococci
3. Pseudomonas
4. E.coli
|
Ans. 2
|
|
60. True regarding Typhoid is
1. Stool culture is always indicative of disease
2. Blood culture be used for diagnosis in the 1st 7 to 10 days
3. Urine culture is positive in second week
4. Serology in 1st week
|
Ans. 2
|
|
61. Mucosal immunity is due to
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE
|
Ans. 2
|
|
62. All are stimulants of immune
system except
1. Il-1
2. Il-6
3. Il-10
4. TNF alpha
|
Ans. 3
|
|
63. All the following are true
about primary CNS lymphoma except
1. Most common type is diffuse histiocytic type
2. Most are of T-cell origin
3. Multicentric location
4. Causes focal signs
|
Ans. 2
|
|
64. To obtain double stranded cDNA
from mRNA the enzyme involved is
1. DNA polymerase
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Ligase
4. Polymerase II
|
Ans. 2
|
|
65. The mother is suffering from
HIV. The earliest time where infection is seen in the fetus is
1. 8 weeks
2. 15 weeks
3. 28 weeks
4. 22 weeks
|
Ans. 1
|
|
66. Autoimmune arthritis is seen in
1. Rhuematoid arthritis
2. Osteoarthritis
3. Psoriatic arthritis
4. Suppurative arthritis
|
Ans. 1
|
|
67. Genetic aberration leading to
severe immunological deficiency is seen in
1. Xanthine oxidase
2. Adenosine deaminase
3. Superoxide dismutase
|
Ans. 2
|
|
68. Maternal antibodies causing
heart block in newborn is
1. Antihistone antibodies
2. Anti Rho antibodies
3. Anti Jo
4. Anti ds DNA
|
Ans. 2
|
|
69. All the following are true
regarding drug induced lupus except
1. CNS involvement is rare
2. Procainamide and Hydralazine are the most common causes
3. Nephritis is common
4. Anti histone antibodies are present
|
Ans. 3
|
|
70. All the following are true
about soft tissue tumors except
1. Liposarcoma is the most common and arises from lipoma
2. In adult rhabdomyosarcomas are resistant to radiotherapy and spread to
lymphnodes
3. Dermatofibrosarcoma protruberance is a malignant tumor and often
presents with
metastasis
4. Rhabdomyosarcoma is common in children
|
Ans. 3
|
|
71. Structure present in bed of
stomach is(**)
1. Left suprarenal gland
2. Splenic artery
3. Transverse mesocolon
4. 4th part of the duodenum
|
Ans. 4
|
|
72. Which of the following is the
most common cause of suppurative cholangitis
1. Hepatic vein
2. CBD stone
3. Sepsis
4. Empyema
|
Ans. 2
|
|
73. Caput medusea is obvious in all
the following except
1. Budd Chiari syndrome
2. Extra hepatic portal vein thrombosis
3. Non cirrhotic peri portal fibrosis
4. Alcoholic cirrhosis
|
Ans. 2
|
|
74. True regarding Familial
adenomatous polyposis are all the following except
1. 100% chances of malignancy over a period of time
2. Adenomatous polyps occur in colon
3. Equal incidence in males and females
4. Total colectomy early in childhood is the treatment of choice
|
Ans. 4
|
|
75. All the following are causes of
steatorrhea except
1. Chronic pancreatitis
2. Tropical sprue
3. Whipple’s disease
4. Intestinal amebiasis
|
Ans. 4
|
|
76. On radiography widened duodenal
‘C’ loop with irregular mucosa on hypotonic
duodenography is due to
1. Chronic pancreatitis
2. Carcinoma head of pancreas
3. Duodenal ulcer
4. Duodenal ileus
|
Ans. 2
|
|
77. Causes of pancreatitis are all
the following except
1. Cystic fibrosis
2. Chronic alcoholism
3. Hypocalcemia
4. CBD stone
|
Ans. 3
|
|
78. Biliary secretion of liver is
induced by
1. CCK
2. Glucagon
3. Secretin
4. Insulin
|
Ans. 3
|
|
79. After splenectomy earliest
changes seen are, increase in
1. Lymphocytes
2. Monocytes
3. Platelets
4. Nuetrophils
|
Ans. 3
|
|
80. True regarding management of
traumatic pnuemothorax is
1. Immediate ICD tube insertion
2. CT scan should be done to confirm pulmonary leak
3. Intermittent needle aspiration
4. Open thoracotomy done and pulmonary leak sealed
|
Ans. 1
|
|
81. True regarding deep burn is all
the following except
1. Loss of pain
2. Charred appearance
3. Loss of skin reaction
4. Presence of blisters
|
Ans. 4
|
|
82. Acute gastric dilatation is
best prevented by
1. Nasogastric tube
2. Gastrostomy
3. Stopping of oral feeds until improvement in condition
4. Steroids
|
Ans. 1
|
|
83. Which of the following azoles
is the best for treatment of Aspergillosis
1. Itraconazole
2. Ketoconazole
3. Micanazole
4. Fluconazole
|
Ans. 1
|
|
84. Beta II receptors are found in
1. Arterioles
2. Veins
3. SA node
4. Myocardium
|
Ans. 1
|
|
85. Theophylline levels are
increased in all the following except
1. Erythromycin
2. Cimetidine
3. Congestive heart failure
4. Smoking
|
Ans. 4
|
|
86. Peripheral neuropathy is caused
by all the following except
1. Vincristine
2. Methotrexate
3. Alcohol
4. INH
|
Ans. 2
|
|
87. Which of the following ATT
drugs is completely avoided in pregnancy
1. Rifampicin
2. INH
3. Pyrazinamide
4. Streptomycin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
88. All the following are
complications of Phenytoin except
1. Megaloblastic anemia
2. Ataxia
3. Ostoemalacia
4. Hypoglycemia
|
Ans. 4
|
|
89. Tamoxifen used in the treatment
of breast carcinoma leads to
1. Ostoeporosis
2. Endometrial hyperplasia
3. Fibroadenoma breast
4. Ovarian tumours
|
Ans. 2
|
|
90. All the following complications
are seen with use of oral contraceptives except
1. MI
2. Venous thrombosis
3. Stroke
4. Intracranial hemorrhage
|
Ans. 4
|
|
91. Insulin mediated glucose entry
is most important in which of the following organs
1. Erythrocytes
2. Hepatocytes
3. Brain
4. Muscle
|
Ans. 4
|
|
92. Corticosteroids given to mother
prevent all the following complications in the newborn except
1. Hyaline membrane disease
2. Intraventricular hemorrhage
3. Necrotizing enterocolitis
4. Bronchopulmonary aplasia
|
Ans. 4
|
|
93. All the following are
bactericidal except
1. Rifampicin
2. Cephalexin
3. INH
4. Oxytetracycline
|
Ans. 4
|
|
94. All the following are used in
preaneasthetic medication except
1. Morphine
2. Atropine
3. Diazepam
4. Vecuronium
|
Ans. 1
|
|
95. Lowest dose of ethinyl
estradiol used in combination contraceptive which has been shown to be
effective is
1. 20 micro gms
2. 30 micro gms
3. 50 micro gms
4. 35 micro gms
|
Ans. 1
|
|
96. Morphine for pain is not to be
used in which of the following conditions
1. Biliary colic
2. Terminal cancer pain
3. Post operative pain
4. Myocardial infarction
|
Ans. 1
|
|
97. Post exposure hepatit is is
seen in
1. Methoxyflurane
2. Halothane
3. Succinylcoline
4. Ether
|
Ans. 2
|
|
98. Drug induced Lupus is caused by
1. Procainamide
2. Rifampicin
3. Oral contraceptives
4. Ranitidine
|
Ans. 1
|
|
99. Dissociate anesthesia is caused
by
1. Ketamine
2. Halothane
3. Succinyl choline
4. Mivacuruim
|
Ans. 1
|
|
100. All the following anesthetics
sensitize the heart except
1. Methoxyflurane
2. Diethylether
3. Halothane
4. Chloroform
|
Ans. 2
|
|
101. Hoffman’s mechanism of drug
elimination is seen in which of the following drugs
1. Gallamine
2. Mivacurium
3. Methoxyflurane
4. Atracuruim
|
Ans. 4
|
|
102. Megaloblastic anemia is caused
by all the following except
1. Nitrous oxide
2. Phenobarbitone
3. Primidone
4. INH
|
Ans. 4
|
|
103. Drug of choice for acute gout
is
1. Probenicid
2. Allopurinol
3. Sulphinpyrazone
4. Indomethacin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
104. The treatment of choice for
Intestinal and extraintestinal amebiasis is
1. Diloxanide furoate
2. Chloroquin
3. Metronidazole
4. Tetracycline
|
Ans. 3
|
|
105. Which of the following factors
require Vitamin K for its synthesis
1. Prothrombin
2. Fibrinogen
3. Thromboplastin
4. Hagerman’s factor
|
Ans. 1
|
|
106. Deficiency of which of the
following factors does not cause an abnormality of the intrinsic pathway
1. Factor IX
2. Factor VII
3. Factor XI
4. Factor VIII
|
Ans. 2
|
|
107. All the following are used in
the treatment of hypertensive emergencies except
1. Prazosin
2. Nitroglycerin
3. Sodium Nitropruside
4. Nifedipine
|
Ans. 1
|
|
108. Isotonic saline when infused
IV show which of the following changes
1. Increase in osmolality in ECF
2. Decrease in Osmolality in ECF
3. No change in osmolality in ECF
4. Decrease in osmolality in ICF
|
Ans. 3
|
|
109. A patient with scrotal
filaraisis was treated with DEC. Which of the following would show that the
adult filaria is killed
1. Disappearance of microfilaria from blood
2. Appearance of filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound
3. Disappearance of filarial dance sign on scrotal ultrasound
4. Absence of microfilaria in scrotal fluid
|
Ans. 3
|
|
110. Interferons are used for all
the following except
1. Fungal infections
2. Viral infections
3. Immunomodulation
4. To induce differentiation of immune cells
|
Ans. 1
|
|
111. Amide linked local anesthetics
are all the following except
1. Procaine
2. Lidocaine
3. Bupivacaine
4. Mepivacaine
|
Ans. 1
|
|
112. All the following act on
membrane receptors except
1. ACTH
2. TSH
3. GnRH
4. Glucagon
|
Ans. 3
|
|
113. Which of the following act via
cAMP
1. LH
2. Testosterone
3. Thyroxin
4. Estrogen
|
Ans. 1
|
|
114. Which of the following belongs
to steroid superfamily
1. Insulin
2. Vitamin D3
3. Epinephrine
4. Growth hormone
|
Ans. 2
|
|
115. Epinephrine causes
glycogenolysis by
1. Adenyl cyclase
2. Conversion of diphospoglycogen synthase to phosphoglycogen synthase
3. Phosphorylase
4. Adenyl kinase
|
Ans. 1
|
|
116. Agranulocytosis is caused by
all the following except
1. Gold
2. Carbimazole
3. Phenytoin
4. Rifampicin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
117. All the following are natural
vasodilators except
1. Endothelin
2. Bradykinin
3. Histamine
4. Nitric oxide
|
Ans. 1
|
|
118. In a patient with allergic
asthma the most important mediators are
1. Prostaglandins
2. Leukotrienes
3. Thromboxanes
4. Bradykinin
|
Ans. 2
|
|
119. Paranoid psychosis occurs on
consumption of
1. Barbiturates
2. Carbamazine
3. Cocaine
4. Amphetamines
|
Ans. 4
|
|
120. All the following are true
regarding digoxin except
1. Dose is reduced in liver failure
2. Increased contractility of cardia
3. Decreased heart rate
4. Dose reduced in renal failure
|
Ans. 1
|
|
121. In coronary artery disease the
role of Beta blockers in decreasing the symptoms is by all the following
mechanism’s except
1. Decreasing the resting heart rate
2. Increasing the coronary blood flow
3. Decreasing cardiac force
4. Preventing exercise induced tachycardia
|
Ans. 2
|
|
122. Which of the following muscles
are used in the action involved in sucking of a straw
1. Orbicularis oris and buccinator
2. Orbicularis and depressor angular oris
3. Levator angularis oris and depressor angularis oris
4. Levator angularis and Zygomaticus
|
Ans. 4
|
|
123. Axillary nerve supplies
deltoid muscle and
1. Teres major
2. Pectoralis minor
3. Subscapularis
4. Teres minor
|
Ans. 4
|
|
124. Injury to common peronial
nerve causes which of the following
1. Loss of sensation over sole
2. Foot drop
3. Weakness of medial compartment muscles
4. Loss of sensation over lat aspect of foot
|
Ans. 2
|
|
125. Structures seen in posterior
triangle of neck are all the following except
1. Accessory nerve
2. Posterior belly of omohyoid
3. Stylohyoid
4. Transverse cervical artery
|
Ans. 3
|
|
126. All the following muscles are
involved in forced inspiration except
1. Diaphragm
2. Pectoralis minor
3. Sternomastoid muscle
4. Lattisimuss Dorsi
|
Ans. 4
|
|
127. All the following muscles are
involved in dorsiflexion except
1. Tibialis anterior
2. Extensor hallusis longus
3. Peroneus tertius
4. Plantaris
|
Ans. 4
|
|
128. Sensory supply of duramater of
middle cranial fossa is by
1. Maxillary nerve
2. Anterior ethmoidal
3. Anterior cervical
4. Mandibular
|
Ans. 4
|
|
129. Longest ligament around the
hip joint is
1. Iliofemoral
2. Ischiofemoral
3. Pubofemoral
4. Ligamentum teres
|
Ans. 1
|
|
130. Ligamentum teres arises from
1. Umblical artery
2. Ductus venosus
3. Umblical vien
4. Lessor omentum
|
Ans. 3
|
|
131. True about structures around
knee joint is
1. Anterior cruciate arises from anterior aspect of intercondylar crest
2. Popliteus is related posteriorly to lateral ligament
3. Anterior end of medial meniscus is broader then posterior
4. Suprapatellar bursa is in front of Quadriceps tendon
|
Ans. 1
|
|
132. Which of the following is a
hinge joint
1. Elbow
2. Metacarpophalengeal joint
3. Atlanto axial
4. Wrist
|
Ans. 1
|
|
133. Parasympathetic fibres arise
from all the following cranial nerves except
1. Vagus
2. Oculomotor
3. Hypoglossal
4. Glossopharyngeal
|
Ans. 3
|
|
134. Which of the following is true
about diverticulosis
1. High fibre containing diet is associated with increased incidence of
Diverticulosis
2. It is premalignant
3. In India >20% of the population above the age of 40 years is affected
by diverticulosis
4. Management is essentially conservative in divertuculosis
|
Ans. 4
|
|
135. All the following are true
regarding Hernia except
1. Femoral hernia is lateral to and below the pubic tubercle
2. Indirect hernia is medial to inferior epigastric blood vessels
3. Contents of the sac are anterolateral to the cord
4. Ovary and fallopian tubes may prolapse into inguinal canal as hernia
|
Ans. 2
|
|
136. Structures passing through
esophageal hiatus are all except
1. Esophagus
2. Left gastric artery
3. Vagus
4. Thoracic duct
|
Ans. 4
|
|
137. Vagus nerve stimulation causes
all the following except
1. Intestinal motility
2. Bradycardia
3. Bronchodilatation
4. Hypotension
|
Ans. 3
|
|
138. Most common site of
involvement in Myocardial infarction is
1. Posterior part of intraventricular septum
2. Lateral wall of Left ventricle
3. Inferior wall
4. Anterior wall of left ventricle
|
Ans. 4
|
|
139. Apex of heart is supplied by
1. Left anterior descending artery
2. Right coronary artery
3. Left circumflex artery
4. All of the above
|
Ans. 1
|
|
140. All the following are true
about micturation reflex except
1. Stretch receptors of detrusor muscle
2. Pudendal nerve
3. Pelvic nerves
4. Parasympathetic nerve arising from sacral segment
|
Ans. 3
|
|
141. Which of the following is true
about prostatic urethra
1. Ejaculatory duct opens into it
2. Urethral crest is present in the anterior aspect of the prostatic
urethra
3. Develops from ectoderm
4. Is lined by the cuboidal epithelium
|
Ans. 1
|
|
142. All the following are true
about the blood supply to brain except
1. Consumes 20% of oxygen
2. It weighs about 2% of body weight
3. Has a blood flow of 2% of the cardiac output
4. The bloodflow is 50 ml/100 gms of tissue
|
Ans. 3
|
|
143. All the following are true
about the blood supply of liver except
1. Hepatic artery gives 1/3rd of blood supply to liver
2. Liver utilizes 10% of cardiac output
3. Umblical vein forms ligamentum teres
4. Hepatic artery gives rise to cystic artery
|
Ans. 2
|
|
144. All the following are true
about the colon except
1. Mucosa is lined by columnar epithelium
2. Submucosa is strongest portion of wall and contains blood vessels
3. Muscularis propria consists of an inner circular muscular layer and an
outer longitunal muscular layer
4. The serosal lining of the rectum is tough and prevents spread of tumor
to surrounding
pelvis
|
Ans. 4
|
|
145. Branchiomeric nerve supply is
via
1. Nucleus Solitarius
2. Nucleus Ambiguous
3. Hypoglossal nerve
4. Trigeminal nerve?
|
Ans. 2
|
|
146. The blood testis barrier is
seen in
1. Leydig cells
2. Spermatogonia
3. Serotli cells
4. Spermatozoa
|
Ans. 3
|
|
147. All the following are true
regarding antiarrhythmics except
1. Mexiletine belongs to class Ib and acts by decreasing refractory period
2. Quinidine belongs to class Ic and acts by prolonging APD
3. Verapamil belongs to class II and acts by blocking fast Na+ channels
4. Amiodarone belongs to class III and acts by prolonging APD
|
Ans. 3
|
|
148. Which of the following is/are
true about Miniature end plate potential
1. It forms in neuromuscular end plate of the resting muscle
2. It disappears on giving Acetylcholine
3. It follows different laws as compared to end plate potentials
4. All of the above
|
Ans. 4
|
|
149. True regarding Refractory
period is all the following except
1. It is equal to duration of APD
2. Membranes are in a depolarized state
3. The duration is equal to 1 second
4. It is refractory to all stimuli
|
Ans. 3
|
|
150. All the following are true
regarding renal homeostasis except
1. Rennin is secreted by juxtaglomerular cells
2. Juxta glomerular cells are present in afferent arteriole
3. It secretes rennin which acts to convert angiotensinogen to angiotensin
II
4. Angiotensin II is a potent vasoconstrictor
|
Ans. 3
|
|
151. Which of the following is true
about Aortic pressure
1. It is 120 mmHg and correlates with protodiastolic pressure
2. It is zero during isovolumetric relaxation
3. It reflects ventricular filling
4. It is responsible for coronary blood flow
|
Ans. 4
|
|
152. 80% of serotonin is present in
1. Brain
2. Spleen
3. Small intestine
4. Muscle
|
Ans. 3
|
|
153. Which of the following is an
endocrine organ
1. Lamina dura
2. Small intestine
3. Ciliary body
4. Breast
|
Ans. 2
|
|
154. Normal anion gap in humans is
(in meq’s)
1. 5-10
2. 8-14
3. 20-30
4. 14-20
|
Ans. 2
|
|
155. All the following are true
about striated muscle except
1. ATP and creatinine phosphate is responsible for structural alterations
in muscle fibre
2. Calcium combines with troponin and causes change in tropomyosin
3. The T-tubules are modified endoplasmic reticulum
4. Calcium present in the endoplasmic reticulum is called as ganoplasm
|
Ans. 3
|
|
156. Sclerotic bones are found in
all the following except
1. Pagets disease
2. Osteopetrosis
3. Osteoporosis
4. Metastasis
|
Ans. 3
|
|
157. Decreased bone age is in all
the following except
1. Hypopituitarism
2. Hypothyroidism
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Sever constitutional illness
|
Ans. 3
|
|
158. It is difficult to treat
Diaphyseal aclasis when it causes which of the following
1. Growth disturbances
2. Nerve involvment
3. Vascular compression
4. **
|
Ans. 1
|
|
159. Which of the following is
treatment for osteoclastoma of lower end of radius
1. Amputation
2. Local resection
3. Chemotherapy
4. Radiotherapy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
160. Which of the following is true
about Human bone
1. Diaphysis is present in the middle of the bone and contains spongy bone
2. Metaphysis is below the epiphyseal plate and contains compact bone
3. Epiphysis is present at end of long bone and is made of spongy bone
covered with a
articular cartilage
4. The flat bones are spongy in the middle and are covered by compact bone
|
Ans.
|
|
161. Which of the following is true
about enchondral bone osscification
1. Occurs in flat bone
2. Growth is continous till late
3. It occurs on the cartilage formed prior to initiation of process
4. It is of more compact nature
|
Ans. 3
|
|
162. All the following are true
about Unicameral bone cyst except
1. It occurs in 5-15 years of age
2. Occurs in upper end of Humerous
3. Rapidly outgrows diameter of Shaft
4. More common in males
|
Ans. 3
|
|
163. Aviators fracture is
1. # neck of talus
2. Calcaneal #
3. 5th metatarsal #
4. Tibial bone #
|
Ans. 1
|
|
164. All the following are true
about multiple myeloma except
1. Hyperuricemia
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Hyperphosphatemia
4. Hyper gamma globulinemia
|
Ans. 3
|
|
165. In the management of a case of
fracture mandible, importance must be given most to
1. Getting the preocclusion closure
2. Radiological confirmation after reduction of fracture
3. Open reduction to visualize proper alignment
4. External skin approximation to get good cosmetic result
|
Ans. 1
|
|
166. Potts spine most commonly
occurs in which of the following locations
1. Paradiscal
2. Posterior
3. Anterior
4. Central
|
Ans. 1
|
|
167. A 6 year old child presents
with congenital dislocation of hip. All the following operations are done
except
1. Salters osteotomy
2. Colanna’s osteotomy
3. Chiari’s osteotomy
4. Open reduction and arthrodesis
|
Ans. 4
|
|
168. All the following are true
about Osteogenesis imperfecta except
1. Deafness
2. Increased fragile fractures
3. Decreased healing
4. Ligament laxity
|
Ans. 4
|
|
169. Type II collagen is seen in
all the following except
1. Bone
2. Cartilage
3. Tendon
4. Loose areolar tissue
|
Ans. 2
|
|
170. All the following are true are
true about Paclitaxel except
1. It acts on the mitotic phase
2. Improves microtubule formation
3. Oral Bioavailability is very high
4. Extensively metabolized by liver
|
Ans. 3
|
|
171. All the following are causes
of pleural effusion except
1. Thyroid tumors
2. Bronchial carcinoma
3. Carcinoma breast
4. Lymphoma
|
Ans. 1
|
|
172. All the following are causes
of hemorrhagic pleural effusion except
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Rheumatoid arthritis
3. Pancreatitis
4. TB
|
Ans. 2
|
|
173. All the following are true
regarding Appendix except
1. Recurrent appendicular artery is a branch of Right colic artery
2. It is an end artery
3. The appendix on histology shows abundant lymphoid tissue
4. It contains Kulchitzky cells in the mucosa which may give rise to
Carcinoid tumor
|
Ans. 1
|
|
174. All the following are true
about middle colic artery except
1. It is an end artery
2. It is a branch of superior mesenteric artery
3. It supplies the jejunum
4. It anastomoses with the superior rectal artery
|
Ans. 2
|
|
175. All the following are true
about inheritance pattern except
1. Autosomal recessive inheritance is associated with severe disease
2. X linked recessive disease is more common in males
3. In Autosomal recessive disease 50% children are affected
4. In Autosomal dominant male and female have equal incidence
|
Ans. 3
|
|
176. In scurvy all the following
radiological signs are seen except
1. Pelican spur
2. Soap bubble appearance
3. Zone of demarcation near epiphysis
4. Frenkel’s line is present
|
Ans. 2
|
|
177. On x ray examination of a
solitary pulmonary nodule which of the following favors a benign nature
1. Eccentric calcification
2. Bulls eye calcification
3. Lesion is associated with atelectasis
4. Associated with pleural effusion
|
Ans. 2
|
|
178. In a patient with carcinoma
cervix , radiotherapy is to be given . At a point 2.5 cms from source the
radiation exposure is 1000 rads. What would be the radiation exposure at a
point 5
cms from the source
1. 250 rads
2. 500 rads
3. 750 rads
4. 1000 rads
|
Ans. 1
|
|
179. If the mother is having blood
group A, and the father blood group AB. Which of the
following blood group would the offspring be unlikely to have
1. O
2. AB
3. A
4. B
|
Ans. 1
|
|
180. All the following are true
about Ischemic heart disease in India as compared to other more developed
countries
1. It occurs a decade earlier in India as compared to the developed
countries
2. Males are more commonly affected
3. It is often associated with insulin resistance
4. India has a lower prevalence of CAD as compared to the developed
countries
|
Ans. 4
|
|
181. In a patient with infective
endocarditis vegetations of mitral valve would embolise to all the organs
except
1. Small intestine
2. Spleen
3. Lung
4. Brain
|
Ans. 3
|
|
182. All the following are true
about histopathological findings in a case of muscular dystrophy except
1. Non uniform muscle fiber size
2. Centralization of skeletal muscle nuclei
3. Infiltration of fatty tissue in between muscle fibers
4. Hypertrophy of some fibers
|
Ans. 2
|
|
183. All the following are true
about claudication except
1. It appears as a cramp like pain
2. It can occur on sitting for a long time in a cramped up position
3. If it occurs in upper limb it is known as writers spasm
4. It is relieved on taking rest
|
Ans.
|
|
184. All the following are true
about Psoriasis except
1. Scalp is commonly involved
2. Nails are involved
3. Can cause arthritis
4. It commonly occurs in flexural areas
|
Ans. 4
|
|
185. In a skin graft transfer the
word ‘take ‘ of graft refers to
1. Healing of graft
2. Vascularization of graft
3. Dense attachment of graft to surrounding tissue
4. Epithelial ingrowth in the margins
|
Ans. 2
|
|
186. Koebners phenomenon is seen in
1. Erythema marginatum
2. Pemphigus
3. Lichen planus
4. Pityriasis Rosea
|
Ans. 3
|
|
187. All are type II
hypersensitivity reactions except
1. Rheamatoid arthritis
2. Goodpastuers disease
3. Contact dermatitis
4. Blood transfusion reactions
|
Ans. 3
|
|
188. Increase serum alpha
fetoprotein is seen in all the following except
1. Open spina bifida
2. Esophageal atresia
3. Post maturity
4. Bronchial aplasia
|
Ans. 3
|
|
189. A patient was found to have
carcinoma cervix stage Ib. The treatment of choice for her condition is
1. Surgery alone
2. Surgery and radiotherapy
3. Radiotherapy
4. Chemotherapy
|
Ans. 1
|
|
190. Which of the following is true
about gonococci
1. It causes vulvovaginitis in young girls
2. Causes interstitial Pneumonia in new born
3. Causes non specific urethritis
|
Ans. 1
|
|
191. In a patient 28 years old
presenting with infertility and recurrent history of PID with lower pelvic
pain must be investigated for which of the following infections
1. Gonococci
2. HIV
3. TB
4. Chlamydia
|
Ans.
|
|
192. A patient with infertility is
treated with Clomiphene .Which of the following methods
would be best for her follow up
1. Cervical mucous viscosity
2. Basal body temperature
3. Ultrasound to monitor follicle growth size
4. Hormonal assay
|
Ans. 3
|
|
193. All the following are true
about plasmids except
1. It contains extrachromosomal DNA
2. It is separate from the host DNA
3. It is present only in the gram positive organisms
4. It is responsible for transfer of bacterial resistance
|
Ans. 3
|
|
194. All the following are true
about causes of Hyperkalemia except
1. Renal failure
2. Metabolic acidosis
3. Hyperaldosteronism
4. Type IV renal tubular acidosis
|
Ans. 3
|
|
195. Exclusive breast feeding
should be done for a minimum period of at least
1. 3 months
2. 6 months
3. 1 year
4. 2 years
|
Ans. 1
|
|
196. Which the following are true
about findings of Polyarteritis nodosa
1. There is tear in the lamina dura
2. Aneurysm formation in the blood vessel
3. Nodules are formed which are clinically palpable
4. All of the above
|
Ans. 4
|
|
197. Splitting of second heart
sound is seen in all the following except (*****)
1. Pulmonary embolism
2. Pulmonary hypertension
3. ASD
4. RBBB
|
Ans. 1
|
|
198. The amniotic fliud is chiefly
produced by
1. Placenta
2. Fetal kidney
3. Chorion frondosum
4. Fetal skin
|
Ans. 2
|
|
199. A 6 year old child complains
of difficulty in swallowing and on examination there is a sublingual
swelling, which is suspected to be Lingual thyroid. The 1st step
in the management
of this child would be
1. Tracheostomy and airway maintenance
2. Thyroid scan
3. Intubation
4. Explain to child that he may require immediate surgery
|
Ans. 2
|
|
200. In a asthmatic patient who is
pregnant, to do an MTP procedure which of the following agents is most
preferable
1. Prostaglandins
2. Ethacrydin lactate
3. Isotonic saline
4. Oxytocin
|
Ans. 2
|
|
201. ---
|
Ans.
|
|
202. Hypertrophic osteoarthropathy
is most commonly seen with
1. Mesothelioma
2. Bronchogenic carcinoma
3. Hepatocellular carcinoma
4. COPD
|
Ans. 2
|
|
203. The least invasive procedure
to diagnose active H.pylori infection after giving treatment is
1. Urease study of gastric biopsy specimen
2. Urea breath test with C14
3. Urea breath test with C13
4. Serology
|
Ans. 2
|
|
204. In perinatal mortality rate
all the following are true except
1. Numerator contains deaths occurring within 1st
7 days
2. Late still births are also included in numerator
3. Denominator contains Total live births
4. Denominator contains total births
|
Ans. 4
|
|
205. All the following are true
about uric acid excretion except
1. It is filtered at the glomerulous
2. It is completely reabsorbed in PCT
3. It is resecreted in the loop of henle
4. Effectively 50 % of the filtered uric acid is excreted
|
Ans.
|
|
206. In Kesri dal poisoning due to
lathyrus Sativus. The active principal is
1. Pyrrazolidine
2. BOAA
3. Argemone oil
4. Pilocarpine
|
Ans. 2
|
|
207. In a patient with history of
blood loss, brought to casualty must be treated initially with
1. Blood transfusion
2. Plasma expanders
3. Crystalloids
4. Dopamine
|
Ans. 3
|
|
208. In a brow presentation the
plane of engagement is
1. Submentobregmatic
2. Submentovertical
3. Mentovertical
4. Mentobregmatic
|
Ans. 3
|
|
209. Lieomyoma uterus is least
susceptible to undergo which of the following changes
1. Malignancy
2. Calcifivation
3. Red degeneration
4. Hyalinosis
|
Ans. 1
|
|
210. A pregnant lady develops
eclampsia and an attack of seizures. The immediate management is
1. IV Phenytoin
2. Diazepam
3. Airway patency
4. IV Magnesuim sulphate
|
Ans. 3
|
|
211. In a patient with ovarian
carcinoma with involvement of both ovaries and with omental metastasis.
This is considered as stage
1. Ic
2. II
3. III
4. IV
|
Ans. 3
|
|
212. In a pregnant lady the L/S
ratio is done to assesss maturity of
1. Fetal kidneys
2. Fetal lungs
3. Fetal heart
4. Fetal Brain
|
Ans. 2
|
|
213. The mechanism of Ethambutol
resistance is
1. Rop B
2. Etm b
3. Etm a
4. rag?
|
Ans. 2
|
|
214. Type I diabetus mellitus is
associated with all the following except
1. Insulitis
2. Reduction in B cell mass
3. B cell degranulation
4. Amyloid change in B cells
|
Ans. 3
|
|
215. A patient with tall stature,
gyneacomastia, hypogonadism. On chromosomal analysis was found to have XXY.
The diagnosis is
1. Klinefilters
2. Edwards
3. Turners
4. CAH
|
Ans. 1
|
|
216. Amyl nitrate inhalation is
useful in which of the following poisoning
1. Mercury
2. Hydrocyanic acid
3. Phosphorous
4. Organophosphates
|
Ans. 2
|
|
217. In contaminated liquor
poisoning all the following can occur except
1. Metabolic alkalosis
2. Blindness
3. Treatment is with ethanol
4. Toxicity is due to Methanol
|
Ans. 1
|
|
218. Foamy liver is seen in
1. Arsenic poisoning
2. Putrefaction
3. Mummification
4. Aconite poisoning
|
Ans. 2
|
|
219. Right and Wrong test is used
in
1. Insanity
2. Alcoholism
3. Identification of a person
4. Schizophrenia
|
Ans. 2
|
|
220. A patient brought dead had
smell of bitter almonds coming from him. The poison
implicated is
1. Methanol
2. Organophosphate
3. Hydrocyanic acid
4. Arsenic
|
Ans. 3
|
|
221. In a firearm injury blackening
seen around the entry wound is due to
1. Flame
2. Smoke
3. Unburnt powder
4. Hot gasses
|
Ans. 2
|
|
222. Gun powder contains all the
following except
1. Potassium nitrate
2. Lead peroxide
3. Charcoal
4. Phosphorous
|
Ans. 2
|
|
223. Unconjugated
hyperbilurubinemia is seen in all the following except
1. Criggler najjar syndrome
2. DubinJohnson syndrome
3. Breast milk jaundice
4. Gilberts syndrome
|
Ans. 2
|
|
224. The histological finding in
acute rheumatic fever which would best aid in diagnosis is
1. Increased vascularity of myocardial valves
2. Fibronous perichondritis
3. Ahscoff’s bodies
4. Vegetations over mitral valve
|
Ans. 3
|
|
225. A patient semiconscious with
altered sensorium with visual hallucination and fragmented delusions is
suffering from which of the following
1. Delerium
2. Delusion
3. Schizophrenia
4. Mania
|
Ans. 1
|
|
226. A person complains of creeping
sensation all over his body. He is know to be addicted to a certain
substance ,which most probably is
1. Hashish
2. Alcoholism
3. Cocaine
4. Amphetamine
|
Ans. 3
|
|
227. Most specific tumor marker for
prostate is
1. Acid phosphatase
2. Alkaline phospohatase
3. Prostate specific antigen
4. HCG
|
Ans. 3
|
|
228. In a smoker a tumor with
central cavitation is found. This is most likely to be
1. Squamous cell carcinoma
2. Small cell carcinoma
3. Alveolar carcinoma
4. Adenocarcinoma
|
Ans. 1
|
|
229. Which of the following is true
about pleomorphic tumor
1. The pleomorphic tumors over period of time give rise to warthins adenoma
2. They are associated with nerve commonly
3. Treatment is enucleation
4. 80 % of benign tumors are of pleomorphic origin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
230. Epileptic seizures associated
with high fever can be differentiated from simple febrile
seizures by which of the following
1. Family history
2. Focal lesion
3. Associated with high rise of temperature
4. Focal seizures
|
Ans.
|
|
231. 100 ml of breast milk contains
1. 70 kcals
2. 150 kcals
3. 75kcal
4. 200kcals
|
Ans. 1
|
|
232. All the following can be used
in diagnosis as tumor markers except
1. Beta HCG
2. Alph fetoprotein
3. Beta 2 microglobulin
4. CEA
|
Ans. 1
|
|
233. Most common cause of ocular
morbidity in our country as found by the 86-89 national
survey for blindness was
1. Refractive error
2. Cataract
3. Trauma
4. Vitamin A deficiency
|
Ans. 2
|
|
234. In a patient found to have
sputum –ve but X-ray +ve tuberculous lesions must be treated by which regime
1. E+R for 1 year
2. 3EHZ + 4HZ
3. 3 RHZ + 2RH
4. 2RHZ + 4 HZ
|
Ans. 4
|
|
235. A female with Tuberculous
infection on treatment with Rifampicin and INH has a history of deep vein
thrombosis and was on started on warfarin. However warfarin was not found to
be effective and she developed another episode of venous thrombosis. She
should now be managed with
1. Withdrawal of Warfarin and starting long term heparin therapy
2. Withdrawal of Rifampicin and substitution by Ethambutol
3. Low molecular weight heparin therapy
4. Withdrawal of warfarin and substitution by acuomeral
|
Ans. 3
|
|
236. Which of the following
requires emergency operation in setting without tertiary care
facilities
1. Extradural hemorrhage
2. Subdural hemorrhage
3. Subarachnoid hemorrhage
4. Intacerebral hemorrhage
|
Ans. 1
|
|
237. All the following are true
about Wilson’s disease except
1. Increase liver copper
2. Increase serum ceruloplasmin level
3. Chronic active hepatitis
4. Hemolysis
|
Ans. 2
|
|
238. Nephrocalcinosis can be
diagnosed in x-ray as caused by all the following except
1. Hereditary hyperoxaluria
2. Fanconi’s anemia
3. Medullary sponge kidney
4. Hyperparathyroidism
|
Ans. 2
|
|
239. On x-ray all the following
renal calculi can be seen except
1. Calcium oxalate
2. Triple phosphate
3. Uric acid
4. Cystine stones
|
Ans. 3
|
|
240. All the following are seen in
nephrotic syndrome except
1. Albuminuria
2. Hypoalbuminemia
3. Edema
4. Hypocomplementenemia
|
Ans. 4
|
|
241. Which of the following are
true about nephritic syndrome
1. Hematuria
3. 3 RHZ + 2RH
4. 2RHZ + 4 HZ
|
Ans. 4
|
|
242. Gall stone causes intestinal
obstruction when it gets impacted in which part of the intestine commonly
1. Proximal Ileum
2. Distal ileum
3. Doudenum
4. Jejunum
|
Ans. 2
|
|
243. Which of the following
anticancer drugs cause dihydrofolate reductase inhibition
1. Cyclophosphamide
2. Methotrexate
3. 5FU
4. Bleomycin
|
Ans. 2
|
|
244. A female presents with primary
amenorrhea and absent vagina. The investigation to be done is
1. LH/FSH assay
2. Chromosomal analysis
3. Urinalysis
4. Laproscopy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
245. Boot shaped heart with
oligemia is seen in
1. TGA
2. TOF
3. ASD
4. PDA
|
Ans. 2
|
|
246. The organ which contains
appendices epiploicae is which of the following
1. Small intestine
2. Jejunum
3. Appendix
4. Colon
|
Ans. 4
|
|
247. Female with prior history of
ectopic pregnancy. The contraceptive of choice now would be which of the
following
1. Barrier method
2. OC pills
3. Diaphragm
4. IUD
|
Ans. 2
|
|
248. Postprandial Hypoglycemia is
reduced by all the following except
1. Small particle size
2. Uncooked starch
3. Presence of enzyme inhibitors in food
4. Excess amounts of proteins and fats along with carbohydrates
|
Ans. 1
|
|
249. Leukemoid reaction can be
differentiated from CML by all the following except
1. Normal alkaline phosphatase
2. Absent Philadelphia chromosome
3. Splenomegaly
4. Decreased vitamin B12 levels
|
Ans. 3
|
|
250. Best prognosis is seen in
which AML
1. M6
2. M1
3. M7
4. M3
|
Ans. 4
|
|
251. Which of the following tumors
is common in extramedullary intradural location
1. Ependymoma
2. Metastasis
3. Astrocyotma
4. Neurofibroma
|
Ans. 4
|
|
252. Most common tumor of
retroperitoneal region is
1. Neurofibroma
2. Liposarcoma
3. Lipoma
4. Rabdomyosarcoma
|
Ans. 2
|
|
253. The treatment of choice for
chronic partial and tonic clonic seizures is
1. Trimethadione
2. Phenytoin
3. Diazepam
4. Ethosuxemide
|
Ans. 2
|
|
254. Best prognosis in new born
seizures is due to which of the following causes
1. Hypoglycemia
2. Hypocalcemia
3. Hyponatremia
4. Hypomagnesemia
|
Ans. 2
|
|
255. A patient with
hyperparathyroidism with pheochromocytoma develops a thyroid swelling. This
is most likely due to which of the following .
1. Follicular adenoma
2. Papillary carcinoma
3. Medullary carcinoma
4. Follicular carcinoma
|
Ans. 3
|
|
256. An adult male with history of
regurgitation of food taken 3-4 days back, and halitosis, also complains of
dysphagia to solid food. The Diagnosis is
1. Plummer Vinson syndrome
2. Esophageal web
3. Achalasia cardia
4. Zenkers diverticulum
|
Ans. 4
|
|
257. Bromocriptine is used in all
the following except
1. Acromegaly
2. Parkinsonism
3. Endogenous depression
4. Infertility
|
Ans. 3
|
|
258. Which of the following enzymes
acts in dephosphorylated state
1. Lipase
2. Glycogen synthase
3. Fructose 1,6 diphosphatase
4. Phoshorylase
|
Ans.
|
|
259. The bonds required for
structure of alpha helix is
1. Hydrogen bonds backed on peptide chain
2. Hydrophobic interactions
3. Hydrophilic interactions
4. Peptide bonds
|
Ans.
|
|
260. Enzyme ‘hormone sensitive
lipase’is inhibited by
1. Epinephrine
2. Cortisol
3. Glucogan
4. Insulin
|
Ans. 4
|
|
261. All the following are true
about polycythemia rubra vera except
1. Erythrocytosis
2. Splenomegaly
3. Normal oxygen saturation
4. Normal B12 levels
|
Ans. 4
|
|
262. Abductor of vocal cord is
1. Posterior cricoarytenoid
2. Lateral aretenoids
3. Cricothyroid
4. Thyroaretenoid
|
Ans. 4
|
|
263. All the following are
associated with actin filament except
1. Actin
2. Troponin
3. Tropomyosin
4. Tapaicin
|
Ans. 1
|
|
264. All the following are true
regarding Immunodeficiency states except
1. Kaposi’sarcoma is a tumour of vascular origin
2. Increased risk of gut lymphomas
3. Good prognosis on treatment
4.
|
Ans. 3
|
|
265. All the following are true
about Hyperkinetic attention deficit disorder except
1. Decreased attention span
2. Associated with seizures
3. Soft neurological signs
4. Treated with amphetamines
|
Ans. 2
|
|
266. In a child 2 years old with
rickets has all the characteristic features except
1. Increased alkaline phosphatase
2. Decreased phosphate levels
3. Normal calcium levels
4. Craniotabes
|
Ans.
|
|
267. Black cylinder with white
shoulders is used in aneasthesia for which of the following
1. Nitrous oxide
2. Oxygen
3. Helium
4. Carbon dioxide
|
Ans. 2
|
|
268. Osmoreceptors are present in
1. Anterior hypothalamus
2. Atria
3. Kidney
4. Ventricles
|
Ans. 1
|
|
269. In a chi square test for a
given p value. The p value signifies that at a given p value
1. Null hypothesis is rejected when it is true
2. Null hypothesis is accepted when it is true
3. Null hypothesis is accepted when it is false
4. Null hypothesis is rejected when it is false
|
Ans. 4
|
|
270. True regarding location of MHC
is, it is present on
1. Chromosome 16
2. Chromosome 6 Long arm
3. Chromosome 6 short arm
4. Chromosome 11 long arm
|
Ans. 3
|
|
271. Which of the following
inhibits biotransformation of drug metabolism except
1. Cimetidine
2. Ketoconazole
3. Phenytoin
4. Erythromycin
|
Ans. 3
|
|
272. Neurotransmitter involved in
nigrostriatal pathway is
1. Serotonin
2. Dopamine
3. Cholinergic
4. Adrenergic
|
Ans. 2
|
|
273. True about Cushing’s syndrome
is
1. Adrenomedullary hyperplasia in association with the MEN syndrome is a
common cause
2. Bronchial carcinoid causes cushings syndrome
3. It is diagnosed by hypokalemia in association with Increased adrenal
secretion
4. It is often fatal due its coronary and Cerebrovascular accidents
|
Ans.
|
|
274. Which of the following is most
important carbon dioxide transport means in blood
1. It is mostly transported as carboxy hemoglobin
2. As dissolved Co2
3. Due to the action of carbonic anhydrase
4. Due to Co2 molecule attached to Hemoglobin
|
Ans. 3
|
|
275. In a newborn being exclusive
ly fed with goats milk will develop which of the following as compared to
being fed with breast milk
1. Scurvy
2. Rickets
3. Microcytic anemia
4. Megaloblastic anemia
|
Ans. 4
|
|
276. The precursor of
phoshophotidyl choline is
1. Phosphotidyl ethanolamine
2. Acetyl choline
3. G6 PD
4. Glycerol 3 phosphate
|
Ans.
|
|
277. All the muscles are inserted
in the greater trochanter except
1. Pyriformis
2. Pectineus
3. Gluteus medius
4. Glutues minimus
|
Ans. 2
|
|
278. The most common organism to
cause osteomyelitis in sickle cell anemia is
1. Staphylococci
2. Salmonella
3. Pseudomonas
4. Proteus
|
Ans. 1
|
|
279. On examination of a patient
there was a double peaked pulse in his peripheral artery .All
the following are causes except
1. Aortic Regurgitation
2. HOCM
3. AS with AR
4. Mitral regurgitation
|
Ans. 4
|
|
280. All the following are field
defects seen in glaucoma except
1. Complete baring of blind spot
2. Isolated scotoma may occur
3. The field changes are usually restricted to 15-30 degrees on field chart
4. Temporal field is first to be affected
|
Ans. 4
|
|
281. The prostaglandins were first
demonstrated in
1. Blood
2. Sputum
3. Semen
4. CSF
|
Ans. 3
|
|
282. All the following tumours are
seen in posterior mediastinum except
1. Neurofibroma
2. Thymoma
3. Lipoma
4. Lymphoma
|
Ans. 2
|
|
283. Increased blood pressure
mediates reflex bradycardia through impulses in all the following nerves
except
1. Accessory cervical
2. Nerve of Herrings
3. Glossopharyngeal
4. Vagus
|
Ans. 1
|
|
284. Rectal polyp most commonly
presents as
1. Obstruction
2. Bleeding
3. Infection
4. Changes into malignancy
|
Ans. 2
|
|
285. All are true regarding
pneumonia caused by Mycoplasma except
1. It is diagnosed by presence of cold agglutinin antibodies
2. Erythromicin is used for treatment
3. It is a highly contagious infection
4. It is difficult to culture
|
Ans. 1
|
|
286. The lifespan of a red blood
cell is
1. 60 days
2. 80 days
3. 120 days
4. 100 days
|
Ans. 3
|
|
287. Which of the following
commonly gives rise to migratory Thrombophlebitis
1. Carcinoma lung
2. Hepatocellular carcinoma
3. Carcinoma pancreas
4. Thyroid carcinoma
|
Ans. 3
|
|
288. The most common primary cause
of intraocular tumor in children
1. Retinoblastoma
2. Rhabdomyosarcoma
3. Neuroblastoma
4. Melanoma
|
Ans. 2
|
|
289. Which of the following is most
important side effect of Cisplatinum
1. Neurotoxicity
2. Cardiotoxicity
3. GIT adverse effects
4. Nephrotoxicity
|
Ans. 4
|
|
290. The treatment of choice for
pseudomembranous colitis is
1. Ampicillin
2. Vancomycin
3. Bacitracin
4. Amikacin
|
Ans. 2
|
|
291. The most common cause of
budd-chiari syndrome is
1. Hepatic vein valve
2. PNH
3. IVC web
4. Oral contraceptives
|
Ans. 2
|
|
292. All the following are seen in
upper motor nerve palsy except
1. Fasciculation’s
2. Increased reflexes
3. Hypertonic movements
4. Clonus
|
Ans. 1
|
|
293. Which of the following
inducing agents increase intracranial pressure
1. Halothane
2. Thiopentone
3. Ketamine
4. Fentanyl
|
Ans. 3
|
|
294. Least common change to occur
in a leiomyoma is
1. Red degeneration
2. Malignancy
3. Calcification
4. Infarction
|
Ans. 2
|
|
295. Mucosal immunity is due to
1. IgG
2. IgA
3. IgM
4. IgE
|
Ans. 2
|
|
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SGPGI March
2002 paper with answers: PG Questions
|
|
(Sanjay
Gandhi Institute of Post Graduate Medical Sciences)