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Last Updated 4 JAN 2002
1. Young patient developed painless
sudden loss if vision which spontaneously improved over a period of 3 months
.what is the most probable diagnosis ?
CENTRAL SEROUS RETINOPATHY
ref: page 194 rao opthalmology selflimiting and recurrent cause allergic, stress and vasomotorinstability. [saurabh gupta]
2. Leucoria seen in all EXCEPT
PERSISTANT HYPERPLASTIC VITREOUS
3. Female patient complains of blurring
of vision, was prscribed -0.5D spherical lenses, retinoscopy done at 1m with
a plane mirror will cause the image to move in which manner?
IMAGE MOVES IN DIRECTION OF MIRROR
IMAGE MOVES IN THE OPPOSITE DIRECTION
NO MOVEMENT OF THE IMAGE
SCISSORS REFLEX IS SEEN
4. What is the most common eye manifestation
of allergy to tubercular bacilli?
ANS - (C) [param,indore]
Harrison------"Tuberculosis may cause chorioretinitis, uveitis, panophthalmitis, and painful hypersensitivity-related PHLYCTENULAR CONJUNCTIVITIS [aman jindal]
5. What is the diagnosis for ropy
discharge from the eyes, along with itching, which occurs every summer?
6. Which wall is most often fractured
in a blow out fracture of the orbit due to fisticuff injury?
7. Which of these is NOT useful in
arriving at a diagnosis of moderate papilledema in a patient of head injury?
IMPAIRED PUPILLARY REFLEX
FILLING OF THE PHYSIOLOGICAL CUP
BLURRING OF THE MARGINS
8. What is represented by ETDRS in
a diabetic vision chart?
ELECTIVE TREATMENT FOR DIABETIC RETINOPATHY SCALES
EXTENDED RX FOR DIABETES REVIEW STUDY
EARLY TREATMENT DIABETIC RETINOPATHY STUDY
EYE TEST DRUM REVIEW STUDY
ANS (C) [kunnal batra,jhansi ; Pinaki sensarma,kolkata , Jinesh Thomas,Ernakulam, Saurabh gupta, Dr. Vaibhav Jain,Raipur and others]
The Early Treatment Diabetic Retinopathy Study (ETDRS) evaluated the effectiveness of laser treatment for the leaking phase of diabetic retinopathy. Patients with macular edema (leaking near or within the center part of the retina, that part which is used for reading, driving etc, see photo), were randomly assigned to receive either laser treatment to the leaking microaneurysms or were simply observed without treatment. The results showed that timely laser treatment reduced the risk of moderately severe visual loss by about three-fold at three years after treatment and significantly increased the likelihood of moderate visual gain. More importantly, this study provides the treating retinal specialist with a detailed guide as to when laser therapy is necessary based upon the location of leaking areas. With this knowledge, we can treat patients at the appropriate time so as to prevent vision loss and conversely, avoid unnecessary treatment for those for whom it is not beneficial. [bhavna, jaipur]
9. What drug can be used that will
provide only mydriasis and no cycloplegia, for a fundus examination in a young
10.Which of these is NOT caused by
RENAL TUBULAR ACIDOSIS
11. Ingestion of what product by
the mother may cause the infant to have cleft palate, spina bifida and an (ASD
12. What is the most common cardiac
defect caused due to lithium?
13. A man is arrested for possession
of narcotics, the culprit is found to have black tongue. What is likely to have
been the substance of abuse?
14. A 25 yr old male experienced
severe flushing, fall in blood pressure after intake of alcohol .The above described
attack can be precipitated by the simultaneous intake of all the following drugs
along with alcohol EXCEPT which?
15. A patient with H/O asthma develops
respiratory tract infection .He is on theophylline, which of the following antibiotics
may precipitate theophylline toxicity?
16. In which condition is granulomatous
vasculitis NOT seen?
GIANT CELL ARTERITIS
CHURG STRAUSS SYNDROME
17. A 30 year old suffers from nephrotic
syndrome, has been on steroids for 14 years. Has bilateral difficulty in abduction
and internal rotation of the hip. Attempt to flex results in abduction. What
is the cause?
AVASCULAR NECROSIS OF FEMUR HEAD
18. In which of these conditions
in elevated HCG level NOT seen?
ENDODERMAL SINUS TUMOR
Harrison-- Endodermal sinus tumor is the malignant counterpart of the fetal yolk sac and is associated with secretion of AFP. Pure embryonal carcinoma may secrete AFP, or hCG, or both; this pattern is biochemical evidence of differentiation.[Dr Jindal]
19. What could be the cause of tall
QRS with coarse features and hepatosplenomegaly?
GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISEASE TYPE II
ROMANO WARD SYNDROME
ANS (D) [param,indore]
ref. Harrison 15th pg 2288,Pompe`s disease ( GSD 2 are of 4 types so pompe`s is specific ans.) Har 14 th 2182
20. What is the rx for torsades de
pointes in a patient who has had a prolonged QT interval since birth?
Har14 th 1273
21. Which of these is NOT a congenital
CENTRAL CORE DISEASE
CENTRAL NUCLEAR DYSTROPHY
Z BAND MYOPATHY
ANS (D) [sivasubramanian coimbatore , param indore]
( Har14th 2477)
22. In which of these conditions
may CPK be raised?
AMYOTROPHIC LATERAL SCLEROSIS
23. Which of these following does
NOT require the drug dose to be reduced in a patient having hypertension, serum
urea 55, serum creatinine 5.6
24. What drug should be avoided in
the case of an HIV patient who is receiving zalcitabine, indinavir and lamivudine?
25. What is NOT true about multiple
MORE IN THOSE OVER 50 YEARS
CLONES OF PLASMA CELLS
BENCE JONES PROTEINS ARE ABNORMAL WHOLE IG IN URINE
THERE IS A PREDISPOSITION TO AMYLOIDOSIS
26. What is the likely diagnosis
in a patient who has low back ache, L3 tenderness, and the following data: proteins
8.9, a-g ratio 2.9/5.9, serum creat 5.5, TLC 4500, DLC neutrophil55, lymphocyte40,
eosinophil2 : Urea was 93 and serum creat was 1.2.ESR was 90 mm
ANS (B) [Dr Anuj ,Hubli]
27. Patient has target cells, nucleated
RBCs, microcytic hypochromic anemia and a positive family history; what is the
investigation of choice?
SUCROSE LYSIS TEST
28. Which of these is NOT a clinical
feature of hypercarbia?
COLD CLAMMY EXTREMITIES
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29. A 25 year old male has a mantoux
of 14 x 17, weight loss, off and on fever, and hemoptysis for 4 months; sputum
is negative for AFB, ESR is raised; what is the likely diagnosis?
ANS ( A)
30. What is NOT true about prion
10% HAVE MYOCLONUS
CAUSED BY AN INFECTIOUS PROTEIN
DEMENTIA IS UNIVERSAL
BRAIN BIOPSY IS DIAGNOSTIC
ANS (C) AND (A)
31. What is the likely diagnosis
in a 25 year old who develops hematuria after 3 days of URI?
32. An individual who underwent renal
transplantation one year ago is found positive for HBsAg and HCV. Rx with which
of the following will give this patient maximum benefit?
LAMIVUDINE AND IFN
ANS (B) [vikas,jipmer ;Dr. Binit Shekhar,Jamshedpur,Jitendra Agrawal,Gwalior ]
As lamivudine is beneficial for chr.hep.B(replecative phase)& here in this question there is no serum marker of replecative phase i.e. HBeAg & HBV DNA in serum or intrahepatic HBcAg.Secondly,Lamivudine has got no role in the t/t. of HCV.Whereas Interferon is effective in t/t. of both HBV & HCV.REFF.page-1698(Last para.)1699(1st.para)1700(2nd.para)1701(t/t.of chr.hcv.) Harrison,14th edition-IInd VOL.2
Ref : Harrison 1745 15th edition
33. In which condition should propranolol
NOT be used?
PREMATURE VENTRICULAR CONTRACTIONS
34. Which of these is NOT a CNS anomaly
seen in HIV?
VASCULAR MYELOPATHY OF THE POSTERIOR COLUMN
TEMPORAL LOBE INVOLVEMENT
35. What is NOT true regarding toxoplasmosis?
IgG INDICATES CONGENITAL INFECTION
MOST INFECTIONS ARE ANTHROPONOTIC
ADULT INFECTIONS ARE MAINLY SYMPTOMATIC
TOXO ENCEPHALITIS OCCURS IN IMMUNOCOMPETENT PERSONS
ANS (C) (corrected question)
36. What is NOT true regarding an
adult hemophiliac who visits a dentist?
CRYOPRECIPITATE MAY BE NEEDED
DOSE OF LIDOCAINE REQIIRED IS INCREASED
HIV SCREENING IS REQUIRED
MONITORED GA CARE TO BE GIVEN
a i p p g
37. What is NOT true about fibrolamellar
cancer of liver?
NOT MORE IN MALES
AFP IS RAISED OVER 1000
SEEN IN YOUNGER AGE G ROUP
38. Which of these is adult PCKD associated with ?
FUSIFORM ABDOMINAL ANEURYSM
SACCULAR ANEURYSM OF ASCENDING AORTA
ANEURYSM OF THE ARCH OF AORTA
39. 18 year old boy presents with
massive hematemesis, spleen is evidently enlarged upto the umbilicus. He is
then found to have varices on esophagoscopy. What could be the diagnosis?
VENO OCCLUSIVE DISEASE
NON CIRRHOTIC PORTAL FIBROSIS
CIRRHOSIS OF THE LIVER
40. what is NOT true with regard
to the adult polycystic kidney?
HYPERTENSION IS RARE
AUTOSOMAL DOMINANT TRANSMISSION
CYSTS ARE SEEN IN THE LIVER, SPLEEN AND PANCREAS
41. 18 yr old presents with massive
hematemesis; history of fever for the past 14 days; rx with drugs; moderate
spleen present; diagnosis?
NSAID INDUCED DUODENAL ULCER
DRUG INDUCED GASTRITIS
42. A 25 year old male with no previous
cardiac complaints presents with arrhythmias. He gives a recent history of binge
drinking. What is the pathology likely in this patient?
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43. which condition may cause hypothalamic
FOSTER KENNEDY SYNDROME
FRAGILE X SYNDROME
44. What is the next line of management
for a 25 year old woman who develops acute pulmonary embolism?
45. A 30 yr old male patient presented
with H/O dizziness, vertigo, diplopia, dysphagia , weakness on the right side
of the body, along with Horners syndrome on the same side. Loss of pain and
temperature sensations on the left side was noted. Patient also has loss of
memory. The artery most likely to be involved in the condition described above
ANTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR
POSTERIOR INFERIOR CEREBELLAR
ANS (B) [bhavna, shimla]
Harrison 14th This is Lateral medullary syndrome d/t involnvement of any of the 5 vessels Viz: Vertebral,Posterior Inferior cerebellar,Sup/meddle or Inferir medullary arteries So the ans is B(PICA)
46. In which of the following conditions
is plasmapheresis IS useful?
GOOD PASTEURS SYNDROME
GUILLAIN BARRE SYNDROME
ANS (C) [nidhi,shimla]
47. which of these does NOT feature
eye manifestations in association with a sero negative arthropathy?
a i p p g .com
48. Why is the sickle cell carrier
state usually asymptomatic?
THE HbS CARRIER STATE HAS HIGHER OXYGEN AFFINITY
LESS THAN 50% SATURATION DOES NOT CAUSE SICKLING
THERE IS ALLOSTERIC BINDING OF HbA to the HbS CARRIER STATE
THERE IS AMPLE HbF TO MAKE UP FOR THE CARRIER STATE
49. An HIV patient is in treatment
with Didinosine ,Stavudine , Indinavir . He is dignosed to have pulmonary tuberculosis,which
one of the following ATT drugs is to be avoided?
50. A lady with congenital heart
disease underwent a dental extraction and developed endocarditis. Which is the
organism most likely to have been involved in the pathogenesis?
51. In Rheumatic heart disease the
vegetations are seen along the line of closure of the mitral valve. These vegetations
are likely to get lodged in any of the following sites EXCEPT ?
52. which of these is Hepatitis B
infection most commonly associated with?
53. Which of these is NOT caused
54. Which of these is a calicivirus?
55. From which area should a biopsy
be taken in the case of a viral esophageal ulcer?
ANS (A) [Sony, kerala; harsh]
[CMV ulcer biopsy is done fron center but CMV is not the most common ulcer: most common biopsy in viral oesophagitis is edge: HPIM 14th]
"Harrison 14th: VIRAL ESOPHAGITIS Mucosal cells from a biopsy sample taken at the edge of an ulcer or from a cytologic smear show ballooning degeneration, ground-glass changes in the nuclei with eosinophilic intranuclear inclusionsMucosal cells from a biopsy sample taken at the edge of an ulcer or from a cytologic smear show ballooning degeneration, ground-glass changes in the nuclei with eosinophilic intranuclear inclusions "
56. What is the investigation for
an 8 yr old boy with a lesion on the back, featuring peripheral scaling and
This patient is suffering from lupus vulgaris, hence best diagnosed by skin biopsy.
57. What is the investigation for
58.A 30 yr old patient who had laparotomy
recently, developed an intraperitoneal abscess (Peritonitis) caused by Gram
-ve cocci resistant to vancomycin,bacitracin,it is hydrolyzed by 6.5%NaCl, Optochin
+ve. Which is likely to be the causative organism?
enterococcus (except for them all are Gm +ve)
59. Patient has a brain abscess,
the aspirated material from the same is foul smelling, and reveals red fluorescence
on UV light. What organism could be implicated?
60. Which of these does NOT feature
Food poisoning in 1-6 hours is due to PREFORMED TOXINS viz -Staph.aureus -Bacillus cerus Cl. botulinum grows in anaerobic foods and produces toxin (24-96 hours) BUT.ETEC grows in GIT and produces Toxin so the toxin is NOT preformed But formed in BODY.
61. Which of these is a marker for
recent infection? (which is diagnostic of an acute infection?)
62. what may be seen in a case of
acute hepatitis B infection?
IgM ANTI HBc
63. If a PCR is functioning at 100%
efficiency, how many particles are produced after 3 cycles?
DOUBLE THE INITIAL
THRICE THE INITIAL
64. For which of these is northern
blotting with hybridization useful?
65. Which of these may feature auto
66. What medium is used for culture
in a suspected case of legionnaires disease?
BUFFERED CHARCOAL WITH YEAST EXTRACT
67. Following a bee sting, the person
develops periorbital edema, laryngospasm .breathing difficulty . These reactions
are mediated through which of the following?
CYTOTOXIC T CELL
IMMUNE COMPLEX REACTIONS
68. CLED is preferred to McConkeys
IT IS A DIFFERENTIAL MEDIUM
PREVENTS SWARMING OF PROTEUS
SUPPORTS THE GROWTH OF PSEUDOMONAS
SUPPORTS GROWTH OF CANDIDA AND STAPHYLOCOCCUS
ANS (D) [rajesh,pondicherry]
CLED is preferred over MacConkey because it supports growth of Staph.Strp and Candida (ref:Mackey Mackartney Texbook of Microbiology)
69. Two farmers were brought dead,
autopsy done revealed viscera that had the smell of bitter almonds. The most
likely poisoning is due to that by?
70. A case of poisoning was brought
to the causalty ,a gastric lavage was done ,and the lavage turned black when
it was heated after being treated with silver nitrate. The poisoning is most
likely to have been due to which of the following?
ANS B (dr rajeev& ashish, udaipur and anuj gupta,hubli)
71. Hemodialysis is mandatory in
which poisoning ?
COPPER SULPHATE POISONING
ANS (B) ref HPIM 14
72. Fine leathery froth that emanates
from the nostrils on chest compression is diagnostic of death due to?
73. Which of these ectopic pregnancies
is likely to progress for the maximum period ?
74. What is the most likely cause
for a 26 year old pregnant woman from bihar referred to a tertiary centre with
75. At what time during gestation
does phosphatidyl glycerol appear?
.Surfectant is formed in amniotic fluid at 28 weeks but phosphatidylglycerol takes longer.
76. 22 year old nullipara presents
with 1 and half months amenorrhea, abdominal pain. USG reveals empty uterine
cavity and free fluid in the pouch of douglas. What is the likely diagnosis?
TWISTED OVARIAN CYST
77. 36 year old G3P3 patient had
LCB 6 years ago, no medical evaluation since then. She now complains of has
excessive vaginal itching, skin pigmentation, lethargy, lack of axillary and
body hair, cold intolerance, hoarseness of voice. On examination, her vagina
is found to be atrophic. Which of these agents is NOT likely to improve her
78. what is the stage of an ovarian
cancer with bilateral involvement, capsular rupture, positive ascitic fluid
for malignant cells?
This is a stage Ic ovarian cancer.
79. following an FTND, a woman develops
post partum hemorrhage after 2 days. APTT is raised, factor VIII is 10% of normal
value, PT and TT values are normal. What is the likely diagnosis?
ACQUIRED FACTOR 8 DEFICIENCY
HEREDITARY FACTOR 8 DEFICIENCY
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80. which of these is NOT a clinical
sign of scar rupture?
BLEEDING PER VAGINUM
81. what is true about a diabetic
CVS ANOMALIES IS MOST COMMONLY SEEN
DEXAMETHASONE CONTRAINDICATED SINCE IT CAUSES HYPERGLYCEMIA
SCREENING FOR DOWNS SYNDROME NOT EFFECTIVE
BETA AGONISTS ARE CONTRAINDICATED IN PRE TERM LABOR
82. what is the approximate pH of
Ref-COGDT,williams PH of amniotic fluid is : 7.2 So the closest choice C that is 7.1-7.2
83. Which of the following is a normal
finding in the third trimester of pregnancy?
APEX BEAT SHIFTED TO THE 4TH IC SPACE
DIAPHRAGM IS PUSHED UP
SHORT MID DIASTOLIC MURMUR
84. What could be the cause for difficulty
in abduction and internal rotation in a 11 yr old 70 kg boy, having tenderness
in scarpas triangle, painful hip movements, and tendency of the limb to go into
abduction upon flexion of the hip?
SLIPPED CAPITAL FEMORAL EPIPHYSIS
TUBERCULOSIS OF HIP
85. What is the likely cause of a
circumscribed osteosclerotic lesion in the tibial diaphysis in an 10 year old?
Ref- Maheshwari -ewing,s(10 - 20 yrs) and osteoid osteoma(5- 25 yrs) both occur in Diaphysis, -differentiating feature here is RADIOLOGICAL app osteoid osteoma - Zone of sclerosis Ewing,s - onion peel appearnce [DR Harsh]
86. Which of the following features
the best bone appostion?
CHONDROBLASTIC ACTIVITY IN ENDOCHONDRIUM
OSTEOBLASTIC ACTIVITY IN MEMBRANE
87. Which condition is NOT likely
to feature the painful arc syndrome?
COMPLETE SUPRASPINATUS TEAR
FRACTURE OF GREATER TUBEROSITY HUMERUS
88. What is used to correct ilio
tibial tract contracture in a neonate?
ANS (C) confirmed [Dr Viraj, Jodhpur]
Obers test: Ask the subject to lie laterally on his/her normal side.Raise and flex the side to be tested with the support of (doctors) our arm at the knee and ankle. On removing the support if illiotibial tract contracture is to be found the raised foot stays in raised position due to contracture
a i p p g . c o m
89. what is the most common type
of malignant melanoma?
90. what is the most common site
for a lentiginous melanoma?
SOLE OF FOOT
91. A melanoma at which site is most
likely to undergo malignant transformation?
92. Which condition may feature fat
laden histiocytes in the gastric mucosa?
SIGNET RING CA
POST GASTRECTOMY STATUS
93. Where do call exner bodies occur?
GRANULOSA CELL TUMOR
THECA CELL TUMOR
94. Which condition does NOT feature
95. What is NOT TRUE about apoptosis?
MACROPHAGES TAKE UP DEAD TISSUE
ACTIVATION OF CAPSASE OCCURS (??)
ENDONUCLEASES MEDIATE CHROMATOLYSIS
96. Which of these is a feature of
INCREASED OXIDATIVE PHOSPHORYLATION
INCREASED GLYCOGEN STORES
INCREASED NUCLEAR MATERIAL AND MITOCHONDRIA
97. From where do dividing cancer
cells derive energy?
98. Which of these is clathrin involved
RECEPTOR MEDIATED ENDOCYTOSIS
RECEPTOR INDEPENDENT ENDOCYTOSIS
RECEPTOR MEDIATED EXOCYTOSIS
RECEPTOR INDEPENDENT EXOCYTOSIS
99. What parameter of the casts are
used to assess the severity in crescentic glomerulonephritis?
PATTERN OF DISTRIBUTION
ANS (C) If cresents are > 50% then it is RPGN
100. What is NOT true with regard
C-MYC GENE EXPRESSION DECREASED
ANTIBODIES TO NORMAL MUCIN
DUE TO DEFECT IN THE FAP GENE
PROLIFERATION OF COLONIC EPITHELIUM
ANS (A) [Dr Vishal,Jabalpur; DR RAJEEV ,ASHISH ,CHARAN JEET,Udaipur]
c-myc being a protooncogene will increase expression.ref robbins
101. Which of the following is the
true statement regarding minimal change disease?
LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES
LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES ALONG WITH LOSS OF CHARGE ACROSS MEMBRANE,HENCE LEADING TO PROTEINURIA
DESTRUCTION OF THE GLOMERULUS, WITH MINIMAL TISSUE ONLY REMAINING INTACT
102. what is the enzyme by which
cancer cells become immortalised?
ANS (C) [Itnal]
ref; robbins 5th ed- page 32
103. Which of these features a reversible
change in cell polarity?
104. What does diapedesis refer to?
ATTACHMENT OF NEUTROPHILS TO BLOOD VESSEL
ESCAPE OF NEUTROPHILS FROM CAPILLARIES FROM CAPILLARY ENDOTHELIUM
STIMULATION OF CYTOKINE SECRETION BY INFLAMMATORY CELLS
RESPONSE OF MEDIATOR CELLS TO CYTOKINE SECRETION
105. what term is used to denote
the replacement of alveolar epithelium by stratified squamous epithelium, seen
on biopsy of a smokers lung?
106. Child under 6 years, with nephrotic
syndrome, responsive to steroids, biopsy done, what will be seen under the light
LOSS OF FOOT PROCESSES
107. Which of these does not regress?
108. What could be the cause of improvement
in the condition of a child having a perimembranous VSD and heart failure?
REDUCTION IN SIZE OF THE VSD
PULMONARY VASCULAR CHANGES
109. Neonate has cyanosis, pulmonary
oligemia, normal cardiac shadow. What could be the diagnosis?
TRANSPOSITION OF GT VESSELS
110. 5 yr old child with anaemia,increased
reticulocyte count,peripheral smear shows target cells ,normoblasts. The patients
younger brother also suffers from the same condition. What investigation should
BONE MARROW BIOPSY
OSMOTIC FRAGILITY TEST
111. what is the likely diagnosis
in a 10 month old child with weakness, coarse features and a normal ECG?
GLYCOGEN STORAGE DISORDER
robbins 5th ed---the s/s are common to all mucopolysaccharadoses----
coarse facial features ,clouding of cornea ,joint stiffness ,mental retardation
he also states the diff b/n hurlers & hunters:as--hunters has a milder clinical course where as hurlers child dies of cvs complications at 6-10 yrs of age since the question asks of a normal ecg the ans should be hunters syndrome
112. A young boy has retarded physical
and mental development. Xrays reveal fragmentation of epiphyses and presence
of wormian bones. What is the diagnosis?
113. Injection of hypotonic saline
into the carotid artery causes activation of the hypothalamus via which of the
MEDIAL NUCLEUS OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS
SUPRAOPTIC NUCLEUS OF HYPOTHALAMUS
PREOPTIC NUCLEUS OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS
PARAVENTRICULAR NUCLEUS OF THE HYPOTHALAMUS
114. Respiratory physiology of a
newborn is different from that of an adult by all EXCEPT which of the following?
INCREASED OXYGEN DEMAND OF THE NEWBORN
DECREASED FRC IN THE NEWBORN
ADULT HB HAS DECREASED AFFINITY FOR OXYGEN
TOTAL LUNG VOLUME IS SMALL/DECREASED IN THE NEWBORN
ANS ( )
115. what is the mechanism by which
hyperventilation may cause muscle spasm?
DECREASED CARBON DIOXIDE
ANS (A) Harrison 1520>
116.true statement regarding presynaptic inhibition
a.axoaxonal synapse mediated
c.prolonged by anaesthesia
d.not affected by pharmacolgical agents
e.it affects motor endplate potential
f.decreased by stychnine
g.decreased by picrotoxin
A. a d f
B.b e f
C.a c f
D.a c f
ANS (C.) [madhu shankar,coimbatore] Tripathi 477.
117. What is NOT true with regard
to semen analysis?
ABSTINENCE FOR 6 WEEKS PROVIDES THE BEST SAMPLE
SPERM MOTILITY IS A GOOD INDICATOR OF SPERM QUALITY
COLLECTION SHOULD BE AT THE SITE OF ANALYSIS
ABSENCE OF FRUCTOSE MAY INDICATE A BLOCKED EJACULATORY DUCT OR LACK OF SEMINAL VESICLES
118. What is the median of these
set of values 2, 5, 7, 10. 10, 15, 20.
119. What can be true regarding the
coefficient of correlation between IMR and ecnonomic status?
r = - 0.8
120. Which is best in order to make
a comparison between 2 populations?
STANDARDISED MORTALITY RATE
DISEASE SPECIFIC DEATH RATE
PROPORTIONAL MORTALITY RATE
AGE SPECIFIC DEATH RATE
121. Which is the best index for
burden of disease?
CASE FATALITY RATE
DISABILITY ADJUSTED LIFE YEARS
122. How much ethinyl estradiol does
the new low dose oral contraceptive pill contain? (IN MICROGRAMS)
ANS (A) [brand name = femilon in india, CMDT 2000 pg 747]
123. Among a 100 women with average
Hb of 10 gm%, the standard deviation was 1, what is the standard error?
124. In a particular trial, the association
of lung cancer with smoking is found to be 40% in one sample and 60% in another.
What is the best test to compare the results?
CHI SQUARE TEST
PAIRED T TEST
125. How much of the sample is included
in 1.95 SD?
126. If the correlation of height
with age is given by the equation y=a + biopsy, what would be the nature of
127. What is NOT true about a case
GIVES ATTRIBUTABLE RISK
IS LESS EXPENSIVE
INVOLVES LESS SUBJECT
PROVIDES QUICK RESULTS
128. In a town of 36,000 people,
there are 1200 live births, and 60 infant deaths. What is the IMR?
129. At what point in time is the
population assessed for calculation of the crude death rate?
130. Which of these is NOT useful
in the prevention of KFD?
PREVENTION OF ROAMING CATTLE
131. A study was undertaken to assess
the effect of a drug in lowering serum cholesterol levels. 15 obese women and
10 non-obese women formed the 2 limbs of the study. Which test would be useful
to correlate the results obtained?
UNPAIRED T TEST
PAIRED T TEST
CHI SQUARE TEST
132. The incidence of carcinoma cervix
in women with multiple sexual partners is 5 times the incidence seen in those
with a single partner. Based on this, what is the attributable risk?
133. What is the best determinant
of the health status of a country?
COUPLE PROTECTION RATE
CRUDE BIRTH RATE
134. Which of these is NOT a component
of the human development index?
LIFE EXPECTANCY AT AGE ONE
PER CAPITA INCOME
135. Which of these is NOT a component
of the PQLI?
LIFE EXPECTANCY AT ONE YEAR
136. A study of BP is done on 100
healthy individuals aged 25-27 years. The result is a normal distribution with
median BP of 120 mm Hg. What percentage of the subjects will have BP reading
higher than 120?
137. In which of these conditions
is post exposure prophylaxis NOT useful?
138. Hb of less than what value is
the cut off used by WHO guidenlines to label an infant under 6 months of age
as being anemic?
ANS (D) Cut off for 6 months to 6 yrs is 110 gms/L. Considering that answer could be 115 gms/L.
139. What are the amounts of calories
and proteins received by a pregnant woman from the anganwadi worker?
300 CALS, 15 GM PROTEIN
500 CALS, 15 GM PROTEIN
300 CALS, 25 GM PROTEIN
500 CALS, 25 GM PROTEIN
ANS (D) pg 400 park
140. The incidence of malaria in
an area is 20,20 ,50 ,56,60,5000,678,898,345,456. which of these methods is
the best to calculate the average incidence?
141. 6 yr old child, has history
of birth asphyxia, does not communicate well , has slow mental and physical
growth, does not mix with people, has limited interests, gets wildly agitated
if disturbed: diagnosis?
ADHD ATTENTION DEFICIT DISORDER
142. man feels that his nose is too
long; friends feel otherwise. He has consulted 3 plastic surgeons but all have
refused to treat him. He suffers from what condition?
143. In a patient with no significant
previous history, no history of any drug intake and a normal ECG, what is the
likely cause of palpitations, sweating and feeling of impending doom, each episode
lasting about 10 minutes?
GENERALISED ANXIETY DISORDER
144. A person on treatment with lithium
for mood disorder presents with seizures , increased reflexes , epileptic fits.
The patient also has a H/O severe gastroenteritis . On investigating the serum
lithium was found to be 1.95mEq/L . This patient is most likely to be suffering
145. A 25 yr old female was brought
to the casualty after she allegedly attempted suicide, her wrists are slashed.
She has a past H/O difficulty in maintaining interpersonal relationships and
also recurrent mood fluctuation episodes. What is the most likely diagnosis?
BORDERLINE PERSONALITY DISORDER
146. A 70 yr old man presents with
a H/O prosopagnosia , loss of memory , 3rd person hallucinations since 1 month.
On examination deep tendon reflexes are increased, mini mental state examination
score is 20/30. what is the most likely diagnosis?
MULTI INFARCT DEMENTIA
147. What is the investigation of
choice for a parameningeal rhabdomyosarcoma?
ANS (C) [corrected]
148. What is the investigation of
choice for neuroendocrine tumors?
149. What is the investigation of
choice for screening for renovascular hypertension with bilateral renal artery
DUPLEX DOPPLER STUDY
CAPTOPRIL ENHANCED RADIONUCLIDE SCAN
150. What is the next investigation
to be done in a case with recurrent hemoptysis, normal CXR, production of purulent
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151. What is the diagnosis in a woman
who has scarring alopecia, thinning of nails, hyperpigmented patches over the
152. Acne vulgaris involves which
one of the following?
153. A patient diagnosed with psoriasis
was put on treatment with high dose dexamethasone for 2 weeks. The patient stopped
treatment after which he develops high-grade fever and generalized pustular
lesions all over his body. The most likely diagnosis is that of?
SECONDARY BACTERIAL INFECTION
154. what is the rx of choice for
REMOVAL OF THE HYPERPLASTIC GLAND
REMOVAL OF ALL 4 GLANDS
3 AND ½ PARATHYROIDECTOMY
ANS (B) Bailey 738
155. which gastric surgery will result
in the least degree of bilious vomiting, dumping and diarrhea?
TRUNCAL VAGOTOMY AND PYLOROPLASTY
TV AND ANTRECTOMY
156. 20 year old male presents with
massive hematemesis. Gives history of taking some drugs for fever for the past
2 weeks. What is the likely diagnosis?
ACUTE PEPTIC ULCERATION DUE TO NSAIDS
157. what is NOT true in a case of
RARE IN WOMEN
IMMEDIATE CATHETERISATION INDICATED
POSTERIOR URETHRAL INJURY OCCURS IN FRACTURE PELVIS
BLOOD AT URINARY MEATUS IS DIAGNOSTIC
158. what is the likely source of
hematuria that is persisting for the past 3 days, with red cell casts evident
159. Treatment of choice for pleomorphic
160. What is the most effective rx
for a warthins tumor?
161. What is the rx for a stage I
HIGH ORCHIDECTOMY PLUS RT
162. Ameloblastoma of the mandible
is most likely to involve which of the following locations?
AT SYMPHYSIS MENTI
MOLAR REGION OF MANDIBLE
IN RELATION TO UPPER 2ND MOLAR
IN RELATION TO INCISORS
ANS (B) May involve third molar region extending into coronoid process, body and angle of mandible.Less frequently ant part of mandible is involved.Presents mostly in 4th or 5th decade, slow growing, painless unless infected, locally invasive within bone and soft tissue and should be excised with a 1 cm margin.Does not metastasize to LN but does so to lung esp after incomplete removal.They are not radiosensitive.
163. What is the most common tumor
involving the mandible?
SQUAMOUS CELL CARCINOMA
ANS (B) Bailey p.598
164. What is the rx for a cancer
lateral border of tongue with lower neck lymph node secondaries?
RADICAL NECK DISSECTION
SUPRAHYOID NECK DISSECTION
165. What is the rx of choice for
an old man who has reflux of foul smelling food?
MYOTOMY WITH SAC EXCISION
166. What is the rx for a 4 x 6 mm
dysgerminoma in a 12 year old girl?
TAH WITH BSO
167. What is NOT true about a varicocele?
MORE COMMON ON THE RT SIDE
ASSOCIATED WITH INFERTILITY
LEFT VARICOCELE CAN BE A LATE SIGN OF A TUMOR IN AN ELDERLY MAN
10% CASES ARE BILATERAL
168. What is NOT true about torsion
of the testes?
ABSENCE OF FLOW ON DOPPLER CLINCHES DIAGNOSIS
PRESENCE OF PYURIA ASSISTS THE DIAGNOSIS
THE OPPOSITE SIDE TESTES SHOULD BE FIXED
RAISING THE TESTES WORSENS THE PAIN
169. What is NOT true about congenital
DUE TO COMPRESSION BY AN ABERRANT VESSEL THAN DUE TO INTRINSIC CAUSES
RETROGRADE PYELOGRAPHY IS USEFUL TO FIND SITE OF OBSTRUCTION
WHITAKERS FORMULA IS USEFUL FOR CLASSIFICATION AND RX ASSESSMENT
ANTE NATAL DIAGNOSIS IS POSSIBLE
In child hood congenital malformations including marked narrowing of the ureteropelvic junction, anomalous retrocaval location of the Ureter and posterior urethral valves predominate. So intrinsic cause is more common than vascular aberrations. Harrison 14 th 1574
170. What is best for the diagnosis
of a firm hard mobile nodule in the right breast of a post menopausal woman?
FNAC alone can give false negetives, FNAC + mammography can inprove sensitivity.FNAC is use to diagnose cystic mass not hard mobile mass.
171. Which should NOT be done in
a testicular tumor?
HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY
HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY WITH CHEMOTHERAPY
HIGH INGUINAL ORCHIDECTOMY AND RT
TRANSCROTAL BIOPSY FOR TISSUE DIAGNOSIS
172. what is NOT likely to be the
cause of stridor occuring 2 hours after a thyroidectomy ?
RLN INJURY BILATERALLY
173. What is the likely cause of
central cyanosis and oligemic lung fields in a neonate with a normal sized heart?
174. A child has fever, jaundice,
clay colored stools, biopsy suggests giant cell hepatitis; what is the clinical
NEONATAL JAUNDICE AND EHBA
NEONATAL JAUNDICE AND IHBA
NON CIRRHOTIC PORTAL FIBROSIS
175. What is the diagnosis in a case
of 30 year old male with jaundice, unconjugated bilirubinemia, increased urine
urobilinogen, urine bilirubin is negative, normal direct bilirubin, normal alk
176. What is the diagnosis in a 65
yr old with fever, flank pain, calculi with fat densities?
177. What is the likely diagnosis
in a case with renal calcification, irregular bladder wall outline, and hematuria?
178 .In INDIA sentinel survellience is done for following diseases./conditions ,EXCEPT
(c)Acute Flaccid Paralysis
179. what is NOT true with regard
to 'triple' stones?
STRUVITE STONES ARE COMPOSED OF TRIPLE PHOSPHATE
THEY ARE CALLED STAGHORN CALCULI WHEN THEY ARE FORMED IN THE RENAL PELVIS
FORM IN ACIDIC URINE
ASSOCIATED WITH UTI
180. Tumor/mass lesion of the kidney
with extension into the IVC,Gerotas' fascia is intact.all the folowing are true
IVC INVASION IS A CONTRAINDICATION FOR SURGERY
CHEST X-RAY TO RULE OUT PULMOARY METS
PRE-OP RADIOTHERAPY ISNOT INDICATED
PRE-OP BIOPSY IS NOT INDICATED
181. Which of these is a criterion
for conservative rx in a ureteric calculus?
INFECTION AND HYDRONEPHROSIS PRESENT
SIZE UNDER 6 MM
NO MOVEMENT FOR 2 WEEKS
182. What is NOT true about a urinary
PRIMARY STONES RARE IN INDIAN CHILDREN
TRANSURETHRAL REMOVAL IS POSSIBLE
MOST ARE RADIO OPAQUE
KUB CLINCHES THE DIAGNOSIS
ANS (A) [debashish, banglore ; harsh , pune, imdad,sunil delhi]
183. What investigation should be
done for a prostatic nodule in a 60 year old man?
EXPRESSED PROSTATIC SECRETION ANALYSIS
CT SCAN PELVIS
184. What is NOT true about carcinoma
CIRCUMCISION ANY TIME BEFORE PUBERTY IS 100% PROTECTIVE
ERYTHROPLASIA OF QUEYRAT IS PREMALIGNANT
OCCURS IN UNHYGIENIC CONDITIONS
PRESENTS WITH INGUINAL NODE ENLARGEMENT IN 50% OF THE CASES
ANS (A) Circumcision done at birth offers 100% protection but not afterwards.
185. Which type of malignancy occurs
in longstanding multinodular goitre?
186. Which condition may feature
pulsatile varicose veins?
DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS
KLIPPEL TRENAUNAY SYNDROME
RIGHT VENTRICULAR FAILURE
187. What may cause local gigantism
DEEP VEIN THROMBOSIS
188. All the following are used as
sclerosing agents EXCEPT
189. Pelviureteric obtruction on
the left side in a 33 year old male who presents with fever and infection. All
the following are correct EXCEPT
DISMEMBERING PYLOPLASTY IS THE TREATMENT OF CHOICE
ENDOSCOPIC PYLOPLASTY IS CONTRAINDICATED
MOST COMMMON CAUSE IS AN ABBERANT VESSEL
TUBERCULOSIS CAN BE A CAUSE
190. 60 yr old hypertensivecomes
with abdominal pain,fusiform dilatation of the abdominal aorta.What could be
the most probable etiology
CYSTIC MEDIAL NECROSIS
191. which of these is most often
secreted by a pheochromocytoma?
192. In a surgery ward WHAT the best
method of prevention of post op wound infection in the patients and hence preventing
their spread to other patients?
HAND WASHING PRIOR TO AND IN BETWEEN PATIENT EXAMINATION AND DRESSINGS
FUMIGATION OF THE WARD
CLEANING OF THE FLOOR WITH CERAMIDE
193. What is the preferred rx for
a solitary thyroid nodule?
194. All of the following pass behind
ischial spine except?
INTERNAL PUDENDAL VESSELS
NERVE TO OBTURATOR INTERNUS
195. Injury to which nerve during
a herniorrhaphy may cause paresthesia at the root of scrotum and base of penis?
196. Which of these statements regarding
the kidney is NOT correct?
RT. KIDNEY IS PREFERRED TO THE LEFT FOR TRANSPLANTATION
RT. KIDNEY IS AT A LOWER LEVEL THAN THE LEFT
RT KIDNEY IS RELATED TO THE DUODENUM IN THE ANTEROMEDIAL ASPECT
RT RENAL VEIN IS SHORTER THAN THE LEFT
197. All of the following enzyme
deficiencies EXCEPT ONE may cause lens opacities and mental retardation in a
GALACTOSE UDP 1 TRANSFERASE
GALACTOSE 4 EPIMERASE
198. Dietery fibres are degraded
by colonic bacteria to form which of the following?
199. what is the possible cause for
gout in a patient who has a glucose-6-phosphatase deficiency?
INCREASED SYNTHESIS OF PENTOSES
INCREASED ACCUMULATION OF SORBITOL
INCREASED SYNTHESIS OF GLYCEROL
DECREASED FUNCTION OF KREBS CYCLE
200. consider a chain reaction where
the sequence of events is: S1 ======>S2=======>S3======>S4, converts
to P1, converts to P2. the sequential enzymes at these 3 reactions are EA, EB
and EC respectively; also consider the following information: enzyme EA has
a positive feedback; enzyme EB has a negative feedback. If enzyme EC is absent.,then
which of the following is true ??
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