ALL INDIA 6th January 2002 MD/MS Entrance examination questions with suggested answers

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1 . In a case of hypertrophic pyloric stenosis, the metabolic disturbance is

1. Respiratory alkalosis
2. Metabolic acidosis
3. Metabolic alkalosis with paradoxical aciduria
4. Metabolic alkalosis with alkaline urine
    Ans 3

2 .Sentinel lymph node biopsy is an important part of the management of which of the following conditions?

1. Carcinoma prostate
2. Carcinoma breast
3. Carcinoma lung
4. Carcinoma nasopharynx

        Ans 2  

3. In hyperthyroidism during pregnancy, which of the following is absolutely contra-indicated?
   1. Surgery
   2. Radioiodine (I 131)
   3. Antithyroid drugs
   4. Iodine

 Ans 2

4. The most premalignant lesion among the following is
   1. Leukoplakia
   2. Erythroplakia
   3. Metaplasia
   4. Dysplasia

   Ans 2

5.  A previously healthy 45 year old construction worker develops acute low back pain, right leg pain, and weakness of dorsiflexion of the great toe. True statements regarding this case include which of the following?
   1. Immediate treatment should include analgesics, muscle relaxants, and back strengthening exercises.
   2. The appearance of foot drop would be an early indication for early surgery.
   3. Lumbar laminectomy and excision of any herniated nucleus pulposus should be performed if the presenting symptoms should fail to resolve in 1 week
   4. If the neurological signs but not the back pain resolve in 2 to 3 weeks, proper treatment would include fusion of affected lumbar vertebrae.

             Ans 2

6. A 26 year woman presents with a palpable thyroid nodule, and needle biopsy demonstrates amyloid in the stroma of the lesion. A cervical lymph node is palpable on the same side as the lesion. The preferred treatment should be
   1. Removal of the involved node, the isthmus, and the enlarged lymph node
   2. removal of the involved lobe, the isthmus, a portion of the opposite lobe, and the enlarged lymph node
   3. Total thyroidectomy and modified neck dissection on the side of the enlarged lymph node
   4. Total thyroidectomy and irradiation of the cervical lymph nodes

             Ans 3

7. A 75 year old woman underwent neck exploration for hyperthyroidism 5 years ago, and a parathyroid adenoma was excised. At the present time, she is recovering from a myocardial infarction 6 weeks ago, and she is in mild congestive heart failure. Her electrocardiogram shows a slow atrial fibrillation. Measurement of her serum calcium shows a level of 13.0 mg/dl and urine calcium is 300 mg/24h. Studies suggest a small mass in the paratracheal position behind the right clavicle. Appropriate management at this time is
   1. Observation and repeat calcium levels in two months
   2. Repeat neck exploration
   3. Treatment with technetium-99
   4. Ultrasound guided alcohol injection of the mass

         Ans 4

8. A 24 year old man falls to the ground when he is struck in the right temple by a base ball. While being driven to the hospital he lapses into coma. He is unresponsive with a dilated right pupil when he reaches the emergency department. The most appropriate step in initial management is
   1. CT scan of the head
   2. Craniotomy
   3. Doppler ultrasound examination of the neck
   4. X rays of the skull and cervical spine

         Ans 2

9. All the following are correct about radiologic evaluation of a patient with Cushing’s syndrome except
   1. Adrenal CT scan distinguishes adrenal cortical hyperplasia from an adrenal tumor
   2. CT of sella tursica is  diagnostic when a pituitary tumor is present
   3. MRI of the adrenals may distinguish adrenal adenoma from carcinoma
   4. Petrosal sinus sampling is the best way to distinguish tumor from an ectopic ACTH producing tumor

         Ans 2

10. Ten days after a splenectomy for abdominal trauma, a 23 year old man complains of upper abdominal and lower chest pain exacerbated by deep breathing. He is anorectic but ambulatory and otherwise making satisfactory progress. On physical examination, his treatment is 38.2 C rectally, and he has decreased breath sounds at the left lung base. His abdominal wound appears to be healing well, bowel sounds are active, and there are no peritoneal signs. Rectal examination is negative. The white blood cell count is 12,500/mm³ with a shift to the left. Chest x-rays show plate like atelectasis of the left lung field. Abdominal x-rays show a nonspecific gas pattern in the bowel and an air fluid level in the left upper quadrant. Serum amylase is 150 Somogyi units per dl.The most likely diagnosis
1. Subphrenic abscess
2. Subfascial wound infection
3. Pancreatitis
4. Pulmonary embolism

         Ans 1

11. A 59 year old woman had a left femoral venous thrombosis during a pregnancy 30 yrs ago. The left greater saphenous vein had been stripped at age 21.She now presents with a large non healing ulceration over medial calf, which has progressed despite bedrest, elevation and use of a support stocking.  Descending phlebography of the left leg demonstrates a patent deep venous system. With free flow of dye from the groin to foot. The first profunda femoris valve is competent. Appropriate management might include which of the following?
    1. Division of the superficial femoral vein in the groin and transplantation of its distal end below the level of the competent profunda valve
    2. Saphenous venous crossover graft with anastomosis of the end of the right saphenous vein onto the side of the left common femoral vein
    3. Left iliofemoral venous thrombectomy with creation of a temporary arteriovenous fistula
    4. Subfascial ligation of perforating veins in the left calf

Ans 1 

12. A 16 year old girl who has nonpitting edema of recent onset affecting her right leg but no other symptoms is referred for evaluation. True statements about this patient include all the following except
    1. A lymphangiogram probably will show hypoplasia of the lymphatics
    2. Prophylactic antibiotics are indicated
    3. Elastic support and diuretics will restore the affected limb to normal appearance
    4. A variety of operations will restore the affected limb to a normal appearance

 Ans 4

13. A 14 year old girl sustains a steam burn measuring 6 by 7 inches over the ulnar aspect of her right forearm. Blisters develop over the entire area of the burn wound, and by the time the patient is seen 6 hour after the injury, some of the blisters have ruptured spontaneously. In addition to debridement of the necrotic epithelium, all the following therapeutic regimens might be considered appropriate for this patient except
    1. Application of silver sulfadiazine and daily washes, but no dressing
    2. Application of Polyvinylpyrrolidone foam, daily washes and a light occlusive dressing changed daily
    3. Application of mafenide acetate cream, but no daily washes or dressing
    4. Heterograft application with sutures to secure in place and daily washes, but no washes

         Ans 4

14. A man 70 kgs is transferred to a burn centre 4 weeks after sustaining a 2^nd and 3^rd degree burn injury to 45% of his total body surface area. Prior to accident the patient’s weight was 90 kgs. The patient has not been given anything by mouth since the injury, except for antacids because of a previous ulcer history. On examination the patients burn wound are clean, but only minimal healing is evident and thick adherent eschar present. The patient’s abdomen is soft and non distended and active bowel sounds are heard. His stools are trace positive for ` and he has a reducible right inguinal hernia, which appears to be easily reducible. He has poor range of motion of all involved joints and has developed early axillary and popliteal fossae flexion contractures. In managing this patient at this stage of his injury, top priority must be given to correcting
    1. The open, poorly healing burn wounds by surgical excision and grafting
    2. The inguinal hernia by surgical repair using local anesthetic
    3. The nutritional status by enteral supplementation or parenteral hyperalimentation
    4. By increasing the dose of antacids and adding cimetidine

             Ans 3

15. On her third of hospitalization, a 70 year old woman who is being treated for acute cholecystitis develops increased pain and tenderness in the right upper quadrant with a palpable mass. Her temperature rises to 104 F and her BP falls to 80/60.Heametamesis and malena ensue and petechiae are noted. Laboratory studies reveal thrombocytopenia, prolonged PT, and decreased fibrinogen level. The most important step in the correction of this patients coagulopathy

1.      Administration of heparin

2.      administration of fresh frozen plasma

3.      Administration of Epsilon amino caproic acid

4.      Exploratory laparotomy

 Ans 4

16. A 64 year old previously healthy man is admitted to a hospital because of a closed head injury and ruptured spleen following an automobile accident. During the first 4 days of hospitalization, following laparotomy and splenectomy, he receives 5% dextrose ½ normal saline solution at a rate of 125 mL/hr. Recorded daily fluid outputs include 450-600 mL of nasogastric tube drainage and 700-1000 mL of urine. The patient is somnolent, but easily aroused until the morning of the 5^th hospital day, when he is noted to be in deep coma, by the afternoon he begins having seizures. The following laboratory data are obtained.

Serum electrolytes: Na 130, K 1.9, Cl 96 and HCO₃ 19

Serum osmolality 260 mosm/L

Urine electrolytes: Na 61, K 18.

      Which of the following statements about diagnosis or treatment of this patient’s condition is true?

1.      His Hypokalemia is probably secondary to metabolic acidosis

2.      An emergency carotid arteriogram should be obtained as the first step in his management

3.      An i.v infusion of 20 ml of 50% Magnesium Sulphate should be given over a 4 hour paired as the first step in his management

4.      A small quantity of hypertonic saline solution should be given as the first of his management

             Ans 4

17. An ultrasound in a 3 year old child shows a 3 cm circumscribed hypoechoic mass in the abdomen. The diagnosis is most likely to be
    1. Neuroblastoma
    2. Wilm’s tumor
    3. Oncocytoma
    4. Renal cell carcinoma

 Ans 2

18. A 6 month old child was found to have grade IV vesicoureteric reflux. The bladder wall is normal. The treatment of choice would be
    1. Ureteric reimplantation
    2. Teflon injection to ureteric orifices
    3. Antibiotics and observe
    4. Endoscopic ureteric resection

 Ans 1

19. All are seen in thromboangiitis obliterans except
    1. Intermittent claudication
    2. Migratory superficial thrombophlebitis
    3. Raynaud’s phenomenon
    4. Absent popliteal pulsation

 Ans 4

20. A patient with external hemorrhoids develops pain while passing stools. The nerve mediating this pain is
    1. Hypogastric nerve
    2. Pudendal nerve
    3. Splanchnic visceral nerve
    4. Sympathetic plexus

 Ans 2

21. A patient operated for carcinoma colon 4 months back now presents with a 2 cm solitary mass in the liver. The best line of management is
    1. Radiotherapy
    2. Radiofrequency ablation
    3. Resection
    4. CT scan

 Ans 3

22. The triad as originally described by Zollinger and Ellison is
    1. Hypergastrinemia, raised gastric acid output, beta cell tumor
    2. Hypergastrinemia, raised gastric acid output, non beta cell tumor
    3. Hyochlorhydria, raised gastric acid output, beta cell tumor
    4. Tumor of papilla of Vater, hypergastrinemia, raised gastric acid output

 Ans 2

23. The most appropriate route for the administration of significant proteins and calories to a patient comatose for a long period after an automobile accident is by
    1. Nasogastric tube feedings
    2. Gastrostomy tube feedings
    3. Jejunostomy tube feedings
    4. Total parenteral nutrition

 Ans 3

24. A patient is admitted to the hospital with burns. The young intern doing the saphenous cut down noted that the patient developed pain and paresthesia along the dorsomedial aspect of the leg following the procedure. The nerve most likely to have been involved is
    1. Saphenous nerve
    2. Sural nerve
    3. Superficial peroneal nerve
    4. Deep peroneal Nerve

 Ans 1

25. An edentulous patient has carcinoma of the oral cavity infiltrating into the alveolar margin. Which of the following would not be indicated in managing the case?
    1. Segmental mandibulectomy
    2. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of the outer table
    3. Marginal mandibulectomy with removal of upper half of mandible
    4. Radiotherapy

 Ans 2

26. A 9 month old infant presented with features of intestinal obstruction. On barium enema, the diagnosis was confirmed to be intussusception. The most likely etiology would be
    1. Meckel’s diverticulum
    2. Hypertrophic Peyer’s patch
    3. Mucosal polyp
    4. Lipoma

 Ans 2

27. A newborn presenting with intestinal obstruction showed on abdominal Xray multiple air fluid levels. The diagnosis is not likely to be
    1. Pyloric obstruction
    2. Duodenal atresia
    3. Ileal atresia
    4. Ladd’s bands

 Ans 3

28. In gastric outlet obstruction in a duodenal ulcer patient, the site of obstruction is most likely to be
    1. Antrum
    2. Duodenum
    3. Pylorus
    4. Pyloric canal

 Ans 1

29. The treatment modality of achalasia which has the maximum probability of causing a recurrence is
    1. Pneumatic dilatation
    2. Laparoscopic myotomy
    3. Botulinum toxin
    4. Open surgical myotomy

 Ans 3

30. True adenocarcinoma of esophagus is most likely to be due to
    1. Achalasia
    2. Barret’s esophagus
    3. Patterson Brown syndrome
    4. Scleroderma

 Ans 2

31. Epithelium of  Barret’s mucosa is
    1. Ciliated columnar
    2. Columnar
    3. Stratified squamous
    4. Squamous

 Ans 2

32. The least recurrence of gastric hypersecretion following surgery for peptic ulcer is seen with
    1. Vagotomy with gastrojejunostomy
    2. Antrectomy with vagotomy
    3. Highly selective vagotomy
    4. Truncal vagotomy

 Ans 2

33. All the following indicates early gastric cancer except
    1. Involvement of mucosa
    2. Involvement of mucosa and submucosa
    3. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and muscularis
    4. Involvement of mucosa, submucosa and adjacent lymph nodes

 Ans 3

34. Gastric malignancy is predisposed with
    1. Duodenal ulcer
    2. Gastric hyperplasia
    3. Intestinal metaplasia III
    4. Blood group O

 Ans 3

35. Thyroid storm is seen in all except
    1. Thyrotoxicosis
    2. Surgery for thyroiditis
    3. Surgery on thyroid
    4. I 131 therapy in thyrotoxicosis

             Ans 4

36. In a young patient with Aplastic anemia, the treatment of choice is
    1. ATG
    2. Bone marrow transplantation
    3. Danazol
    4. G-CSF

 Ans 2

37 .Investigation of choice for invasive amebiasis is

1. Indirect hemagglutination
2. ELISA
3. Counter immune electrophoresis
4. Microscopy

 Ans  2

 1.    Prolactin
 2.    ACTH
 3.    Growth hormone
 4.    PTH

 Ans 4

1. Addison’s disease
2. Uremia
3. Acromegaly
4. Fever

 Ans 3

1. Zollinger Ellison Syndrome
2. VIPoma
3. Pernicious anemia
4. Glucagonoma

 Ans 3

1. Increased ammonium
2. Increased H⁺
3. Increased K⁺
4. Increased Mg²⁺

 Ans 1

1. Diabetic ketoacidosis
2. Renal failure
3. Chronic respiratory failure
4. Antifreeze ingestion

 Ans 3

1. Hypokalemia
2. Hypernatremia
3. Hypertension
4. Edema

 Ans 4

1. Episodic hypertension
2. Orthostatic hypotension
3. Wheezing
4. Headache

 Ans  3

1. Urinary metanephrine
2. Hydroxy indole acetic acid in urine
3. Urinary metanephrine and VMA
4. T_3, T₄ and TSH

 Ans 3

1. Increase in Na level
2. Decrease in Na level
3. No change would be expected
4. Na would return to previous level spontaneously on correction of blood glucose

 Ans  4

1. Inherited protein C and S deficit
2. Factor XII deficiency
3. Antiphospholipid antibody syndrome
4. Increased antithrombin III levels

 Ans 3

1. Recurrent fetal loss
2. Neurological symptoms
3. Thrombocytosis
4. Prolonged APTT

 Ans 3

1. Acute lymphatic leukemia
2. Non Hodgkin’s lymphoma
3. Hodgkin’s lymphoma
4. Small cell carcinoma of lung

 Ans 3

1. Pilocytic astrocytoma
2. Oligodendroglioma
3. Medulloblastoma
4. Oncocytoma

 Ans 3

1. Ultrasound
2. Nuclear scan
3. Urography
4. Biopsy

 Ans 4

1. Pheochromocytoma
2. Coarctation of the aorta
3. Neurofibromatosis
4. Marfan syndrome

 Ans 2

1. It has a viral etiology
2. VII nerve is involved
3. VIII nerve may be involved
4. Excellent prognosis if spontaneous recovery occurs

 Ans 4

1. Membranous Glomerulonephritis
2. Membranoproliferative Glomerulonephritis
3. Rapidly progressive Glomerulonephritis
4. Minimal Change disease

             Ans 1

1. Hyperphosphatemia
2. Hypercalcemia
3. Hypophosphatemia
4. Hypocalcemia

 Ans 1

1. 5^th intercostal space in the midclavicular line
2. 2^nd intercostal space close to the sternum
3. 7^th intercostal space in mid axillary line
4. 10^th intercostal space in paravertebral location

 Ans 3

1. Osteogenesis imperfecta
2. Osteopetrosis
3. Osteochondroma
4. Hyperparathyroidism

 Ans 2

1. c wave à atrial systole
2. ax descent à atrial relaxation
3. cy descent à ventricular relaxation
4. ya descent à atrial filling

 Ans 1

1. Cannon wave à Complete heart block
2. Slow vy descent à Tricuspid regurgitation
3. Giant cv wave à Tricuspid stenosis
4. Increased JVP with prominent pulsations à SVC obstruction

 Ans 1

1. Hemothorax
2. Pneumothorax
3. Pleural effusion
4. Hypovolumia

             Ans 2

1. Torr
2. mm Hg
3. K Pa
4. cm H₂O

 Ans 3

1. Fever
2. Increased ESR
3. Hypertension
4. Embolic phenomenon

 Ans 3

1. Hyperglycemia
2. Hypertrophy of muscle
3. Neuropsychiatric symptoms
4. Suppression of the pituitary adrenal axis

 Ans 2

1. Acute adrenal insufficiency is usually secondary to exogenous glucocorticoid administration
2. Hyperglycemia is usually present
3. Hyperkalemia may present as an acute cardiac problem
4. Hyponatremia occurs as a result of renal tubule sodium reabsorption (****)

 Ans 2

1. Liver biopsy
2. HBV DNA estimation
3. Interferon therapy
4. Observation and follow up

         Ans 3

a i p g

1. 35%
2. 50%
3. 65%
4. 75%

 Ans 3

1. Raised ESR
2. Subsides spontaneously
3. Autoimmune etiology
4. Pain and swelling of the thyroid occurs

 Ans 3

1. RA factor is associated with bad prognosis
2. Absent RA factor rules out the diagnosis of Rheumatoid arthritis
3. It is very common in childhood Rheumatoid arthritis
4. It correlates with disease activity

 Ans 1

1. Thrombocytosis
2. Increased Prothrombin time
3. Increased Bleeding time
4. Increased clotting time

 Ans 3

1. Pituitary adenoma
2. Craniopharyngioma
3. Sheehan syndrome
4. Pinealoma

 Ans 1

1. ATP dependent K channels
2. cAMP
3. Carrier modulation
4. Receptor phosphorylation

 Ans 1

1. Decreased DTR
2. Absent pupillary reflexes
3. Complete apnea
4. Heart rate not responding to atropine

            Ans 1

1. Genu varum
2. Genu valgum
3. Genu recurvatum
4. Tibia vara

 Ans 2

1. Femoral fracture
2. Patellar fracture
3. Tibial fracture
4. Medial malleolar fracture

 Ans 3

1. Lateral malleolus
2. Base of 5^th metatarsal bone
3. Sustentaculum tali
4. Extensor digitorum brevis

 Ans 4

1. Extensor variety is more common
2. Uncommon in > 15 years of age
3. Varus is the most common deformity
4. Ulnar nerve is most commonly involved

 Ans 4

1. Median
2. Ulnar
3. Radial
4. Musculocutaneous

 Ans 1

1. Axillary nerve
2. Radial nerve
3. Musculocutaneous nerve
4. Ulnar nerve

 Ans 1

1. Internal rotation, flexion and adduction
2. Internal rotation, extension and adduction
3. External rotation, flexion and adduction
4. External rotation, extension and adduction

 Ans 1

1. Simple bone cyst
2. Chondrosarcoma
3. Osteochondroma
4. Osteosarcoma

 Ans 2

1. Hypovolumia
2. Air embolism
3. Fat embolism
4. Hyponatremia

 Ans 3

1. Caudal regression syndrome
2. Tight spinal band
3. Diasteatomyelia
4. Coccygeal cyst

                 Ans 3

1. Ammonium
2. Carbon monoxide
3. Hydrocyanic acid
4. Sulfur dioxide

 Ans 2

1. It increases the absorption of oxygen
2. It decreases the turbulence
3. It decreases the dead space
4. For analgesia

         Ans 2

1. Bacteremia
2. Halothane granuloma
3. Increased mucosal bleeding
4. Laryngospasm

        Ans 2

1. No dehydration
2. Some dehydration
3. Severe dehydration
4. Skin pinching is not reliable in making a diagnosis

 Ans 1

1. Incision and suction
2. Inject antivenom locally
3. Polyvalent antivenom should be started i.v
4. Observe for progression of symptoms

     Ans  4

1. Increased incidence in < 34 weeks
2. More common in infants of diabetic mothers
3. 100% oxygen is given in treatment
4. Cyanosis is present

 Ans 3

a i p p g

1. Organic aciduria
2. Urea cycle defect
3. MELAS with lactic acidosis
4. Aminoacidopathy

 Ans 1

1. Failure to raise head to 90 degrees
2. Fails to vocalize
3. Unable to make babbling noises
4. Does not transfer a red ring even when given in hand

Ans 1 

1. Fifth disease
2. Roseola infantum
3. Measles
4. Rubella

 Ans 2

1. Mental retardation
2. Aortic stenosis
3. Dearness
4. Patent ductus arteriosus

 Ans 2

1. Respiratory infections
2. Diarrhea
3. Malnutrition
4. Tetanus

            Ans 4

1. Autism
2. Conduct disorder
3. Attention deficit hyperactivity disorder
4. Conversion

Ans 3 

1. It represents a state of inner mind’s spatial orientation
2. It is independent of the observer
3. It is under voluntary control
4. It is the perception which occurs in the absence of stimulus

 Ans 3

1. Hypochondriasis
2. Somatization
3. Somatoform pain disorder
4. Obsessive Compulsive Disorder

 Ans 1

1. Formal thought disorder
2. Auditory hallucinations
3. Visual hallucinations
4. Depression

 Ans 3

1. Obsessive compulsive disorder
2. Depression
3. Mania
4. Schizophrenia

 Ans 1

1. Delirium tremens
2. Korsakoff’s psychosis
3. Conversion
4. Schizophrenia

         Ans 1

1. Acute panic disorder
2. Temporal lobe seizures
3. Generalized anxiety
4. Hysteria and conversion disorders

Ans 2 

1. Binge eating disorder
2. Bulimia nervosa
3. Anorexia Nervosa
4. OCD

        Ans 2

1. Bilirubin more than 5 mg/dL
2. SGPT/SGOT ratio less than 60 units
3. Presence of severe itching
4. Alkaline phosphatase is increased maximally

 Ans 1

1. Oligospermia
2. Azoospermia
3. Motility disorder
4. Antisperm antibodies

Ans 1 

1. Occurs due to subcutaneous edema
2. Seen mostly over occipital bone
3. Treatment is by aspiration
4. Varies in size when the child cries

 Ans  4

1. Increases the size of the birth canal
2. Midline episiotomy causes less bleeding and heals early
3. Involvement of rectum is classified as grade 3/ 4
4. Higher infection rate in mediolateral episiotomy

 Ans 2/4

1. Placenta previa grade 4
2. Abruptio placenta
3. Carcinoma cervix Stage IB
4. Active herpetic lesion

 Ans 2

1. Azithromycin + contact tracing
2. Doxycycline + Metronidazole
3. Fluconazole + Doxycycline
4. Metronidazole

 Ans 1

1. Hypercalcemia
2. Hyperflycemia
3. Increased blood viscosity
4. Hyperkalemia

 Ans 3

1. Dialtation and curettage
2. Oral contraceptives for 3 cycles
3. Progesterone for 3 cycles
4. Hysterectomy

 Ans 4

1. NSAIDs
2. Tranexamic acid
3. Progesterone
4. Clomiphene

 Ans 4

1. 1-3 days
2. 8-10 days
3. 13-16 days
4. 24-28 days

 Ans 3

1. Ethinyl estradiol
2. Tamoxifen
3. Oral contraceptives
4. Nulliparity

 Ans 3

1. Uterus didelphys
2. Arcuate uterus
3. Subseptate uterus
4. Unicornuate uterus

 Ans 1

1. Gonococcus
2. Chlamydia
3. Tuberculosis
4. Ureaplasma

 Ans 3

1. Cornual implantation
2. Uterine malformation
3. Fetal malformation
4. Placenta accreta

 Ans 4

1. The only pre-requisite is full cervical dilatation
2. If venthouse fails, forceps may be used
3. Forceps can be used in breech deliveries
4. Venthouse cannot be used in rotational deliveries (posterior and transverse presentations)

 Ans 3

1. Application of outlet forceps to cut short the 2^nd stage
2. After delivery of the placenta, intravenous frusemide to be given
3. Methergine is to be administered after delivery of the anterior shoulder
4. Antibiotic is to be given

 Ans 3

1. pH increases
2. Increase in lactobacilli
3. Increase in anaerobic bacteria
4. Decrease in glycogen content

 Ans 4

1. Testosterone
2. 17 hydroxy progesterone
3. Dihydroxy epi androsterone
4. LH and FSH

 Ans 1

1. Urethrocele
2. Cystocele
3. Enterocele
4. Rectocele

 Ans 2

1. Ethinyl estradiol
2. Progesterone
3. Gonadotropin
4. Danazol

             Ans  1

1. Pityriasis Rosea
2. Pityriasis Rubra pilaris
3. Psoriasis
4. Drug reaction

 Ans 1

1. Pityriasis versicolor
2. Pityriasis Rosea
3. Pityriasis rubra pilaris
4. Lichen planus

 Ans 2

1. Lichen sclerosis
2. Lichen planus
3. Lichen atrophicus
4. Psoriasis

Ans 2 

1. Drug induced reaction
2. Pustular psoriasis
3. Bacterial infections
4. Septicemia

        Ans 2

1. It is easily accessible
2. Damage to chorda tympani is avoided
3. Damage to ossicular chain does not occur
4. It is the least vascular region.

             Ans   4

1. Hypermobile ossicular chain
2. Labyrinthine fistula
3. Dead ear
4. Post fenestration

 Ans   3

1. Placing the tuning fork on the vertex and examined after partial occlusion of the auditory canal
2. Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid and assessing the side of better hearing
3. Placing the tuning fork on the mastoid and examined after partial occlusion of the auditory canal
4. Placing the tuning fork on the forehead and by assessing the side of better hearing

 Ans   4

1. Tracheostomy
2. Laser vaporization
3. Corticosteroid
4. Radiotherapy

 Ans   4

1. Laser
2. Radiotherapy
3. Stripping of the vocal cord
4. Partial laryngectomy

 Ans   4

1. Brachytherapy
2. External beam radiotherapy
3. Laryngectomy
4. Chemotherapy

 Ans   2

1. Pneumothorax
2. Foreign body aspiration
3. Pleural effusion
4. Unilateral emphysema

 Ans   2

1. Congenital lobar emphysema
2. Foreign body aspiration
3. Bronchiectasis
4. Atelectasis

 Ans   2

1. Pneumonia
2. No pneumonia
3. Severe pneumonia
4. Upper respiratory tract infection

Ans      1

1. An epiphenomenon of ophthalmic allergy
2. Excess flow of tears due to blockade of nasolacrimal duct
3. Ectropion is the most common cause
4. Due to irritation of cornea by eyelashes

 Ans 2

1. Shallow anterior chamber
2. Optic disc cupping
3. Narrow angle
4. Visual acuity and refractive error

 Ans 2

1. Detecting the formation of aqueous humor
2. Detecting the drainage of aqueous humor
3. Gives continuous intraocular pressure tracings
4. Represents field changes

 Ans 2

1. Protanomaly
2. Deuteranomaly
3. Tritanomaly

 Ans 1

1. Red and Green
2. Blue and Green
3. Yellow and Green
4. Red and Blue

 Ans 1

1. Distorted
2. Remains unchanged
3. Becomes better
4. Becomes worse

 Ans 1

1. Amblyopia
2. Anisometropia
3. Optic neuritis
4. Refractive error

 Ans 1

1. Medial rectus
2. Lateral rectus
3. Inferior oblique
4. Levator palpebrae superioris

             Ans 2

1. Acute congestive glaucoma
2. Iridocyclitis
3. Keratitis
4. Conjunctivitis

         Ans 1

1. Optic nerve
2. Optic tract
3. Lateral geniculate body
4. Optic radiation

Ans 2 

1. Upwards
2. Downwards
3. Looking towards right side(temporal)
4. Looking towards left side (Nasal)

            Ans 1

1. Sunray appearance
2. Onion peel appearance
3. Driven snow appearance
4. Cherry Blossom appearance

 Ans 3

1. It makes an obtuse angle with the chest wall
2. The margins are diffuse when viewed end on
3. Not confined to any bronchopulmonary segment
4. Air bronchograms are seen within the opacity

     Ans 1

1. Alpha
2. Beta
3. Gamma
4. Electron beam

         Ans  3

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1. Increase in mA
2. Increase in kVp
3. Increased exposure time
4. Increased developing time

Ans 2 

1. At end expiration
2. At peak of inspiration
3. During mid expiration
4. During mid inspiration

                Ans 2

1. 0.5
2. 1.0
3. 1.5
4. 2.0

 Ans

1. Age specific death rate is not needed
2. A standard population is needed
3. Population should be comparable
4. Two populations are compared

 Ans 1

1. Tetanus
2. Rabies
3. Measles
4. Hepatitis B

Ans 3 

1. Neurological complication rate of DPT is 1 in 50000
2. Vaccine efficacy is more than 95%
3. Erythromycin prevents spread of disease between children
4. Leukocytosis correlates with the severity of cough

 Ans 3

1. Educate students about meningococcal transmission and take preventive measures
2. Chemoprophylaxis against both Group B and Group C
3. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Xavier
4. Vaccine prophylaxis of contacts of Yogender

 Ans 3

1. 0-3 years
2. 0-5 years
3. 0-15 years
4. 0-25 years

             Ans 3

1. Till the last scab falls off
2. 6 days after onset of rash
3. 3 days after onset of rash
4. Till the fever subsides

Ans 2 

1. Candida
2. Group B streptococcus
3. Hepatitis B
4. Echinococcus

 Ans 4

1. Rubella
2. Diphtheria
3. Tetanus
4. Hepatitis B

 Ans 1

1. Immunity to diphtheria
2. Susceptibility to diphtheria
3. Hypersensitivity to diphtheria
4. Infection with diphtheria

 Ans 2

1. Polio
2. Typhoid
3. Measles
4. Diphtheria

 Ans 3

1. To find total amount of disease in a population
2. To plan effective control measures
3. To determine the trend of disease in a population

 Ans 1

1. Health promotion
2. Specific protection
3. Primordial prevention
4. Primary prevention

 Ans 2

1. Time gap between primary and secondary case
2. Time gap between index and primary case
3. Time taken for a person from infection to develop maximum infectivity
4. The time taken from infection till a person infects another person

 Ans 1

1. Useful in rare diseases
2. Relative risk can be calculated
3. Odds ratio can be calculated
4. Cost-effective and inexpensive

 Ans 2

1. 60 g/ day
2. 70 g/ day
3. 40 g/ day
4. 50 g/ day

 Ans 1

1. Cereals are deficient in methionine
2. Cereals are deficient in methionine and pulses are deficient in lysine
3. Cereals are deficient in lysine and pulses are deficient in methionine
4. Both cereals and pulses contain threonine

 Ans 3

1. Organic matter
2. Bacterial content
3. Anaerobic bacteria
4. Chemicals

 Ans 1

1. 65
2. 50
3. 75
4. 60

 Ans 2

1. Unpaired t test
2. Paired t test
3. Chi square test
4. Fisher’s test

                 Ans 2

1. Very strong correlation
2. Moderately strong correlation
3. Weak correlation
4. Computational mistake in calculating correlation

 Ans 4

The Odds ratio can be estimated as

1.      0.65

2.      0.8

3.      1.3

4.      2.25

 Ans 4

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1. Beta carotene is protective in lung cancer
2. Beta carotene is not protective in lung cancer
3. The study design is not sufficient to draw any meaningful conclusions
4. Beta carotene is carcinogenic

Ans 2 

1. Bar chart
2. Line diagram
3. Scatter diagram
4. Histogram

 Ans 4

1. Specificity and positive predictive value
2. Sensitivity and positive predictive value
3. Sensitivity and negative predictive value
4. Specificity and negative predictive value

             Ans 1

1. DNA polymerase
2. Reverse transcriptase
3. Segmented DNA
4. ds DNA

             Ans 2

177. Ureteric constriction is seen at all the following positions except
     1. Ureteropelvic junction
     2. Ureterovesical junction
     3. Crossing of iliac artery
     4. Ischial spine

 Ans 4

1. Anesthesia below the level of lesion
2. Areflexia
3. Hypotension
4. Limited respiratory effort

  Ans 4

1. Upper cervical
2. Lumbar
3. Thoracic
4. Lower cervical

  Ans 3

1. Ubiquitin
2. Tubulin
3. Laminin
4. Keratin

  Ans 2

1. Femoral artery
2. External iliac artery
3. Internal iliac artery
4. Aorta

 Ans 1 

1. Coracoclavicular ligament
2. Coracoacromial ligament
3. Costoclavicular ligament
4. Coracohumeral ligament

  Ans 1

1. Masseter
2. Buccinator
3. Tensor veli palati
4. Posterior belly of digastric

  Ans 3

1. Auditory tube
2. Nasal septum
3. Articular cartilage
4. Costal cartilage

  Ans 1

1. Facial nerve
2. Hypoglossal nerve
3. Glossopharyngeal nerve
4. Maxillary division of trigeminal

  Ans 2

1. Esophageal opening
2. Costovertebral triangle
3. Costal and sternal attachment of diaphragm
4. Inferior vena caval opening

  Ans 1

1. Arcuate artery is an end artery
2. It is a site for portal systemic anastomosis
3. The renal artery divides into five segmental arteries before entering the hilum

188 .All the following are derivatives of the neural crest except

1. Melanocyte
2. Adrenal medulla
3. Sympathetic ganglia
4. Cauda equina

              Ans 4

1. Leads to formation of the three germ layers
2. Occurs at the caudal end prior to the cranial end
3. Inner cell mass gives rise to the yolk sac
4. Usually occurs at 4 weeks

 Ans 1 

1. Occurs in the cranial nerves
2. Derivative of neural crest
3. Contains multipolar cells
4. Contains lipofuscin granules

                  Ans 3

1. NADPH, NAD, FMN
2. Dioxygenase
3. NADH
4. NADH, FAD

         Ans 4

1. It is an anesthetic agent
2. It is a plasma expander
3. It is a crystalloid
4. Used as a nutritional agent

Ans 2 

1. Palmityl CoA
2. Citrate
3. Acetoacetate
4. Oxalosuccinate

 Ans 3

1. Acetoacetate to alpha keto glutarate
2. Succinyl CoA to Succinate
3. Fumarate to malate
4. Succinate to fumarate

Ans 2 

1. Histidine
2. Keratin
3. Lysine
4. Cysteine

 Ans 4

1. RNA splicing
2. Apo B gene
3. Chromosomal loci
4. Gene rearrangement

 Ans 1

1. All enzymes do not follow the Michaelis Menten hypothesis
2. RNA acts as ribozymes
3. Antibodies take a part in the catalysis of many reactions
4. Metals are involved in attachment and catalysis

 Ans 2

1. Transferases
2. Oxidases
3. Lyases
4. Peptidases

 Ans  1

1. Chemical methods
2. Physical methods
3. Chemiosmotic methods
4. Conformational changes

 Ans 3

1. Na-K ATPase
2. Transferases
3. Phosphatases
4. Aldolases

 Ans 1

1. Transketolase level in blood