1.        Hypertrophic pulmonary osteoarthropathy is seen more commonly with which of the following lung carcinoma’s

a.        Squamous cell carcinoma

b.       Adenocarcinoma

c.        Epidermoid carcinoma

d.       Oat cell carcinoma

2.        By knowing the half life of a drug it would help in knowing the

a.        Median lethal dose

b.       Median effective dose

c.        Potency of drug

d.       Frequency of dosing

3.        Which of the following types of human papiloma viruses is implicated in causation of carcinoma cervix

a.        6

b.       11

c.        16

d.       42

4.        The best way to visualize the corneoscleral angle is

a.        Slit lamp microscopy

b.       Gonioscopy

c.        Opthalmoscope

d.       Keratometer

5.        Mebendazole is used for treatment of all of the following except

a.        Intestinal ameobiasis

b.       Trichuriasis

c.        Ankylostoma

d.       Round worm

6.        Which of the following causes visceral larva migrane

a.        Toxocara catis

b.       Ankylostoma doudenale

c.        Loa Loa

d.       Trichuris trichura

7.        Which of the following is content of littre’s hernia

a.        Sigmoid colon

b.       Urinary bladder

c.        Meckel’s diverticulum

d.       Ileus

8.        Amino Acid Score (AAS) refers to

a.        The ratio of number of essential amino acids present in the given diet to reference protein

b.       The ratio of number of limiting amino acids present in given diet to the reference protein

c.        The number of limiting amino acids present in the given diet

d.       The number of essential amino acids present in the given diet

9.        Most common tumor of the appendix is

a.        Adenocarcinoma

b.       Carcinoid

c.        Squamous cell carcinoma

d.       Metastasis

10.     Formation of ammonium ions to remove the excess acid in urine is produced by which of the following enzymes  

a.        Glutaminase

b.       Glutamate pyruvate transaminase

c.        Glutamate dehydrogenase

d.       Carboxylase

11.     The normal PR interval is in seconds

a.        0.05-0.08

b.       0.12-0.16

c.        0.8-1.6

d.       1.2-2.3

12.     The normal sperm count is

a.        4-5 million/mm3

b.       60-120 million/ml

c.        60-120 lakhs/ml

d.       40-50 lakhs/mm3

13.     To balance pressure natriuresis, the renal sodium excretion is

a.        Increased with increased arterial pressure

b.       Decreased with increased pressure

c.        Decreased with decreased pressure

d.       Increased with decreased pressure

14.     The limiting amino acid in wheat is

a.        Lysine

b.       Threonine

c.        Tryptophan

d.       Cysteine

15.     Chronic retropharyngeal abcess is formed due to

a.        Acute cervical lymphadenitis

b.       Caries spine

c.        Tonsillitis

d.       Trauma

16.     Post cricoid malignancy is commonly in

a.        Alcoholics

b.       Smokers

c.        Plummer vinsons syndrome

d.       Reflux esophagitis

17.     The Henderson Hassalbach equation is used for measuring

a.        The sodium potassium balance

b.       The acid base balance

c.        The kinetics of enzymatic reaction

d.       Anion gap

18.     All of the following are anabolic except

a.        Growth hormone

b.       Cortisol

c.        Insulin

d.       IGF-1

19.     In right homonymous hemianopia the lesion is in

a.        The right optic nerve

b.       Optic chiasma

c.        The left Optic tract

d.       The Optic radiations in the left cortex

20.     Osteochondritis of the lunate bone is known as

a.        Friebergs

b.       Keinbocks

c.        Perthes

d.       Kohlers

21.     The incubation period of mumps is

a.     7 days

b.     10 days

c.     18 days

d.     25 days

22.     To differentiate between osmotic and secretory diarrhea it is best to measure

a.        The stool osmolol gap

b.       The stool and plasma osmolality

c.        The stool anion gap

d.       The water content of the stools

23.     Cobble stone appearance is seen in

a.        Epidemic keratoconjunctivitis

b.       Vernal conjunctivitis

c.        Trachoma

d.       Herpes Infection

24.     The difference between use of a selective alpha1 blocker  to using a non selective alpha blocker is

a.        Less reflux tachycardia

b.       Decreased postural hypotension

c.        More vasodilation

d.       Vasoconstriction

25.     All of the following are actions of epinephrine on beta receptors except

a.        Tachycardia

b.       Ventricular arrythmia’s

c.        A-V block

d.       Increased cardiac output

 

26.     Symes amputation is of which of the following types

a.        Provisional non end bearing

b.       Provisional end bearing

c.        Definitive non end bearing

d.       Definitive end bearing

27.     All of the following are true about amiodarone

a.        It acts on fast sodium channels

b.       Increase action potential

c.        It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres

d.       It increases refractory period in A-V node

28.     The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is

a.        Osteoblast

b.       Osteoclast

c.        Undifferintiated cells

d.       Giant cells

29.     In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is

a.        Friction

b.   &nbsn style='color:navy;layout-grid-mode:line'>c.        It decreases conduction in HIS purkinje fibres

d.       It increases refractory period in A-V node

28.     The cell of origin in giant cell tumor is

a.        Osteoblast

b.       Osteoclast

c.        Undifferintiated cells

d.       Giant cells

29.     In vaginal prolapse the cause for decubitus ulcer is

a.        Friction

b.       Congestion

c.        Infection

d.       Mechanical

30.     DIC is seen in all of the following except

a.        Intra uterine death

b.       Extraamniotic instillation of ethacrydine lactate

c.        Blood loss

d.       Amniotic fluid embolism

31.     All of the following are conservative management used in ectopic pregnancy except

a.        Salpingostomy

b.       Salpingotomy

c.        Salpingectomy

d.       Methotrexate

32.     Hyperemisis Gravidarium in 1st trimester is seen with increased frequency in all of the following except

a.        H.Mole

b.       Twins

c.        Preeclampsia

d.       Primigravida

33.     Volume of synovial fluid in knee joint is

a.        0.5-4 ml

b.       4-8 ml

c.        10-20 ml

d.       8-12 ml

34.     The increased production of vitamin D induced transport protein increases absorption of

a.        Iron

b.       Magnesium

c.        Calcium

d.       Zinc

35.     The blocking antibodies in pernicious anemia are

a.        Directed against parietal cells

b.       Prevents binding of IF and B12

c.        Prevents absorption of IF and B12 complex

d.       Are directed against enterocytes in ileum

36.     Most common site of urethral rupture is

a.        Prostatic

b.       Penile

c.        Bulbar

d.       Membranous

37.     WHO day is celebrated all over the day on

a.        April 10

b.       April 7th

c.        May 31st

d.       Dec 1st

38.     Small Pox was declared globally eradicated on

a.        7th May 1977

b.       1975

c.        8^th May 1980

d.       14th April 1977

39.     The membranous separating the region between the feotal skull bones is called as

a.        Fontanels

b.       Wormian Bones

c.        Sutures

d.       Ostia

40.     Bisphosphonates act by

a.        Preventing calcium absorption in GIT

b.       Inhibiting osteoclast mediated bone resorption

c.        Preventing Ca excretion

41.     Altering blood pH and preventing Ca resorption

a.        Odd’s ratio measures the strength of association and

b.       The ratio of incidence of disease in exposed to nonexposed

c.        The risk factors and outcome

d.       The ratio between exposed to the incidence of disease in the total population

42.     The structures marking the seperation of the duodenum and the jejunum is

a.        The superior mesenteric vein

b.       The bile duct

c.        The ligament of trietz

d.       The caudate lobe of liver

43.     In an immunosupressed individual suffering from viral , opportunistic fungal and parasitic infections is suffering mainly from a defect in

a.        B cells

b.       T cells

c.        Complement

d.       Neutrophils

44.     For contraception (post contraception) all of the following are used except

a.        Mifepristone

b.       Oral contraceptives

c.        Levonorgestrol

d.       Prostaglandins

45.     All of the following are used in treatment of endometriosis except

a.        Danazol

b.       Gonadotropin releasing hormone

c.        OCP’s

d.       Gonadotropin releasing hormone agonist

46.     During a surgery ligation of which of the following small veins in the abdomen can lead to death of the patient

a.        IVC

b.       Superior mesenteric vein

c.        Coronary vein

d.       Splenic vein

47.     All of the following are associated with maculopapular rash except

a.        Typhoid

b.       Dengue

c.        Chicken pox

d.       Measles

48.     Punctate basophilia is seen in

a.        Erythrocytes

b.       Nuetrophils

c.        Lymphocytes

d.       Eosinophils

 

 

49.     The fibrous layer is missing in

a.        Pars tensa

b.       Pars flaccida

c.        Umbo

d.       Anullus of tympanic membrane

50.     Myotonic dystrophy inheritance is by

a.        Autosomal Dominant

b.       X-linked recessive

c.        Autosomal recessive

d.       Multifactorial

51.     X-linked dominant inheritance pattern is seen in

a.        Polycystic Kidney disease

b.       Vitamin D resistant rickets

c.        Cystic fibrosis

d.       Von willibrands disease

52.     Von Willibrands disease is transmitted as

a.        Autosomal recessive

b.       Autosomal Dominant

c.        X-linked recessive

d.       Y-linked recessive

53.     Internal hordeolum is

a.        Chronic granulomatous infection of  Meibomian glands

b.       Acute supperative infection of Miebomian  glands

c.        Acute infection of glands of Zei’s

d.       Lacrimal gland infection

54.     The protein content in breast milk is

a.        0.8 gm/100 ml

b.       0.9 gm/10 ml

c.        1 gm/10ml

d.       2 gms/100 ml

55.     Dysphagia lusoria is due to

a.        Abnormal origin of left subclavian artery

b.       Abnormal origin of right subclavian artery

c.        Compression by aortic arch

d.       Obstruction due to foreign body

56.     Sensitivity is written in the formula as

a.        TP/FP+FN

b.       TP/FN+TN

c.        TP/TN+TP

d.       TP/TN+FP

57.     Annual parasite incidence measures

a.        Number of confirmed cases due to malaria in 1 yr *1000 / Population under surveillance

b.       Number of cases of malaria due to falciparam in 1 yr * 1000 / Total population

c.        Number of slides examined *1000 / Total population

d.       Number of faciparum malria cases in 2-10 yr old children*1000 / Total population                           

58.     As per WHO TB is said to be under control when

a.        <1% population is tuberculin positive

b.       <1% population is sputum positive

c.        <1% infection in children less then 14 years

d.       <5% TB cases

59.     Tullio Phenomenon refers to

a.        Increased sensitivity to hearing

b.       Better hearing in noisy surrounding

c.        Impedence matching

d.       Vertigo on hearing high freq sounds

60.     Thornwalds disease is infection of

a.        Pharyngeal bursa

b.       Space of gillete

c.        Crypta magna

d.       Subhyoid infection

61.     All of the following are true regarding ulcerative colitis except

a.        Decreased goblet cells

b.       Crypt abcess

c.        Destruction of crypts

d.       Transmural infarction

62.     Avoiding reflex is due to

a.        Right frontal lobe disease

b.       Dominant parietal lobe disease

c.        Non dominant parietal lobe disease

d.       Left Frontal lobe disease

63.     All of the following are true regarding cerebellar lesion except

a.        Hypotonia

b.       Adiodokinesia

c.        Resting tremors

d.       Ataxia

64.     Normal oxygen tension with decreased oxygen carrying capacity is seen in

a.        Histotoxic hypoxia

b.       Anemic hypoxia

c.        Stagnant hypoxia

d.       Hypoxic hypoxia

 

65.     Loss of speech with inability to read, understand in a patient is referred to as

a.        Dyslexia

b.       Aphasia

c.        Disconnection syndrome

d.       Apraxia

66.     Abelson oncogene is associated with which of the following leukemias

a.        Acute myeloid leukemia

b.       Acute leukemic leukemia

c.        Chronic myeloid leukemia

d.       Chronic leukemic leukemia

67.     In CML the translocation occurring is

a.        Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 21

b.       Abl of chromosome 9 to bcr of chromosome 22

c.        Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 21

d.       Bcr of chromosome 9 to abl of chromosome 22

68.     M4 in the classification of AML denotes which of the following stages

a.        Promyelocytic

b.       Monocytic

c.        Myelomonocytic

d.       Megakaryocytic

69.     The M4 stage in AML is associated with the presence of

a.        Megaloblasts

b.       Myeloblasts

c.        Both myeloblasts and megaloblasts

d.       Promylocytes

70.     KANAVEL’S sign is seen in

a.        Acute tenosynovitis

b.       Pancreatitis

c.        Appendicitis

d.       Ectopic pregnancy

71.     The most common cause of multiple strictures in the small intestine is

a.        TB

b.       Ischeamic enteritis

c.        Crohns disease

d.       Ulcerative colitis

72.     In a post appendectomy patient the cause of an external fistula formation is

a.        TB

b.       Intussuception

c.        Crohns disease

d.       Ulcerative colitis

73.     Feacal fistula at the umbilicus is due to

a.        Patent urachus

b.       Vescico intestinal diverticulum

c.        Omphalocele

d.       Infection

74.     Most common cause of vescico vaginal fistula in developing countries is due to

a.        Obstructed labour

b.       Werthiems hysterectomy

c.        Ceasarian section

d.       Forceps delivery

75.     All of the following operations are done in incontinence except

a.        Kelleys stitch

b.       Aldridge’s operation

c.        Marshal marchetti krantz operation

d.       Shirodhkars sling operation

76.     Most common type of incontinence seen in UTI is

a.        False

b.       Overflow

c.        Urge

d.       True

77.     Deep tranverse arrest is commonly associated with which of the following types of pelvis

a.        Platypelloid

b.       Android

c.        Anthrapoid

d.       Gyenecoid

78.     Which of the following is responsible for inability to rotate anteriorly in the occipitoposterior position

a.        Moderate size fetus

b.       Gynecoid pelvis

c.        Weak uterine contractions

d.       Good levator ani muscle contractions

79.     Which of the following sinuses is commonly associated with development of  osteomyelitis in the face

a.        Maxillary

b.       Ethmoid

c.        Frontal

d.       Sphenoid

80.     Atropine causes decrease salivation and bronchodilatation . These properties enable it to used in as

a.        Preaneasthetic medication

b.       Hyertension

c.        Supraventricular tachycardia

d.       MI

 

81.     All of the following are true about succinylcholine except

a.        Causes persistent depolarizing block

b.       Metabolized by psuedocholinesterase

c.        Block can be reversed by neostigmine

d.       Has a short half life

82.     Maculopaular rash is seen is all of the following except

a.        Typhoid

b.       Varicella

c.        Dengue

d.       Measles

83.     Diastomatomyelia is

a.        Discontinuity in spinal cord

b.       Spur in spinal cord

c.        Absence of dorsal column

d.       Dislocated disc

84.     The weight of the body is transmitted through the axis of the vertebrae passing through

a.        Lamina

b.       Vertebral Body

c.        Pedicle

d.       Dorsal arch

85.     All of the following are selective beta blockers except

a.        Atenolol

b.       Metoprolol

c.        Bisoprlol

d.       Propranolol

86.     All of the following are seen in Tetralogy of Fallot except

a.        VSD

b.       Overiding aorta

c.        Pulmonary stenosis

d.       Left ventricular hypertrophy

87.     In most patients with multiple sclerosis, CSF proteins are

a.        Increased

b.       Decreased

c.        Normal

d.       Absent

88.     In Freidrichs type V hyperlipedemias the protein raised is

a.        IDL

b.       VLDL

c.        LDL

d.       Chylomicronsii

89.     Atoprine is used in treatment of all of the following except

a.        Iridocyclitis

b.       Angle closure glaucoma

c.        Corneal ulcer

d.       Before refraction assessment

90.     Wickhams striae is characteristically is seen in

a.        Psoriasis

b.       Lichen planus

c.        Pemphigus

d.       Pemphigoid

91.     Rhinitis sicca involves

a.        Anterior nares

b.       Septum

c.        Posterior wall

d.       Lateral wall

92.     Acute pancreatitis is caused most commonly by

a.        Gallstones

b.       Alcohol

c.        Truama

d.       Drugs

93.     All of the following about meperidine are true except

a.        Has shorter half life then morphine

b.       Greater spasmogenic action then morphine

c.        Has dependency

d.       Better oral avialabilty

94.     The lateral boundary of femoral canal is formed by

a.        Lacunar ligament

b.       Femoral ligament

c.        Femoral vein

d.       Femoral nerve

95.     Posterior relation of Winslows foramen is

a.        IVC

b.       Liver

c.        Doudenum

d.       Pancreas

96.     The death sentence given by a judicial officer has to be confirmed by

a.        Sessions court

b.       Additional sessions court

c.        High court

d.       Supreme court

97.     The asbestos which of least likely pathogenic is

a.        Crocodolite

b.       Crysolite

c.        Amsolyte

d.       Trenolite

 

98.     Most common surgical complication of typhoid is

a.        Myocarditis

b.       Cholecystitis

c.        Hemorrhage

d.       Ileal perforation

99.     In a patient with highly selective protienuria the protein lost is

a.        Transferrin

b.       Albumin and fibronogen

c.        Transferrin and fibronogen

d.       Fibronogen

100.  The immunologic response giving protection to Hepatitis A for long periods

a.        IgM

b.       IgG

c.        IgA

d.       IgD

101.  In window period in Hepatitis B infection, the severly shows

a.        HbsAg

b.       Anti HbsAg

c.        HbeAg

d.       Anti HbeAg

102.  Characteristic skin lesion in Peutz Jeghers syndrome is

a.        Freckles

b.       Lentigenes

c.        Café u-lait spots

d.       Adenoma Sebacium

103.  Characteristic lesion in tuberous sclerosis

a.        Café u lait

b.       Adenoma sebaceum

c.        Lentigenes

d.       Melanoma

104.  All of the following are common uses of beta blockers and calcium channel blockers except

a.        Atrial arrythmias

b.       Hypertension

c.        Variant angina

d.       Migraine

105.  Cardiac output is decreased by

a.        Increased sympathetic activity

b.       Tachycardia

c.        Increased preload

d.       Decreaesd venous return

106.  The parasympathetic effect on bronchial smooth muscle causes

a.        Increased tidal volume

b.       Bronchoconstriction

c.        Bronchodilatation

d.       No effect

 

 

107.  All of the following are true about cochlea except

a.        Lesion in cochlea causes nerve deafness

b.       Contains the tectorial membrane which is fine tuned

c.        It contains the hearing sense organs

d.       Lesion causes vertigo

108.  Myopia is best corrected by

a.        Convex lenses

b.       Concave lenses

c.        Astigmatic lenses

d.       Prisms

109.  All of the following are causes of complicated cataract except

a.        Malignant Myopia

b.       Diabetes mellitus

c.        Retinitis Pigmentosa

d.       Iridocyclitis

110.  The most common cause of psuedohermaphroditism is

a.        Ovarian dysgenesis

b.       Ovarian tumor

c.        Congenital adrenal hyperplasia

d.       PCOD

111.  The D/D of rectal prolapse in a child is

a.        Intusseception

b.       Rectal polyp

c.        Heamorrhoids

d.       Tumor

112.  Most common cause of stridor in newborn is

a.        Subglottic stenosis

b.       Laryngomalacia

c.        Foreiegn Body

d.       Infection

113.  All of the following are functions of saliva except

a.        Acts as lubricant for mastication

b.       It helps in perception of taste by dissolving

c.        It helps in digestion of carbohydrates

d.       It helps in digestion of proteins

114.  The blood supply of SA node is

a.        Left coronary artery

b.       Right coronary artery

c.        Left circumflex artery

d.       Anterior descending artery

115.  The graph used to measure to unrelated variables like height and weight are

a.        Scatter diagram

b.       Bar chart

c.        Pie chart

d.       Histogram

116.  Reverse intussuception occurs in

a.        Ileocolic

b.       Ileoceacal

c.        Colocolic

d.       Jejunogastric

117.  Aspirin can be used in all of the following except

a.        Dysmennorhes

b.       Acute inflammation of joints

c.        Post MI

d.       Viral infection

118.  All of the following are true about metropathia heamoragica except

a.        Swiss cheese endometrium

b.       Common nearing menopause

c.        Anovulatory cycles

d.       Metrorhagia

119.  Savlon contains

a.        Cetavlon + hibitane

b.       Cetavlon + Chlorheximide

c.        Hibitane + Chlorhexenol

d.       Cetavlon + Chlorohexenol

120.  Most common adverse effect of Ziduvudine is

a.        Myopathy

b.       Bone marrow toxicity

c.        Hemolytic anemia

d.       Hepatitis

121.  All of the following are advantages of using INH in antiTB treatment except

a.        It reduces load of TB bacilli

b.       It kills intracellular TB bacilli

c.        It acts on dormant bacilli

d.       It has preventable side effects like peripheral neuropathy

122.  The only drug available for treatment of nephrogenic diabetes insipidus is

a.        Chlorpropamide

b.       Thiazide

c.        Desmopressin

d.       Frusemide

123.  All of the following are physiological cysts in the ovary except one which is a tumor

a.        Theca cysts

b.       Dermoid

c.        Luteal cysts

d.       Corpus luteum cysts

 

124.  Development of testes is dependant upon which of the following

a.        X chromosome

b.       Y chromosome

c.        XY chromosomes

d.       XX chromosomes

125.  Turners syndrome karyotype is

a.        45, XXY

b.       45 ´ 0

c.        45,XX

d.       45, XY

126.  All of the following are indications of enucleation except

a.        Malignant myopia

b.       Pthysis bulbi

c.        Panopthalmitis

d.       Total anterior staphyloma

127.  Purely ketogenic aminoacid

a.        Proline

b.       Tyrosine

c.        Leucine

d.       Phenylanine

128.  Ponderal index is

a.        Wt/Ht2

b.       100-ht in cms

c.        Wt/cube root of Ht

d.       Observed weight/Expected weight

129.  WHO’s definition of blindness is

a.        <6/60

b.       <3/60

c.        <20/60

d.       <1/60

130.  All of the following are seen in abruptio placentae except

a.        Tenderness over the abdomen

b.       Renal failure

c.        Uterine inversion

d.       DIC

131.  PQLI includes

a.        IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, economic growth product

b.       IMR, life expectancy at 1 year, literacy

c.        MMR, literacy, economic growth product

d.       IMR, life expectancy at birth and knowledge

 

132.  Freshly prepared bleaching powder yields what % of chlorine

a.        66%

b.       33%

c.        50%

d.       20%

133.  Iodized salt at production level and at consumer level should be

a.        45 ppm  and 15 ppm

b.       30 ppm and 15 ppm

c.        40 ppm and 20 ppm

d.       20 ppm and 10 ppm

134.  The toxin implicated in lathyrism is

a.        Pyrralizidone

b.       BOAA

c.        Sanguinarine

d.       Aflatoxin

135.  Chronic noise exposure above what level causes deafness

a.        100 Db

b.       85 Db

c.        70 Db

d.       140 Db

136.  All of the following are seen in horners syndrome except

a.        Ptosis

b.       Miosis

c.        Proptosis

d.       Anhydrosis

137.  Antigen drift involving infleunza indicates

a.        Major shift in the structure of the antigens

b.       Minor variations in the viral nucleocapsid

c.        Minor antigenic variations in the heamagluttinin and neuroaminidase antigens

d.       Recombination with host DNA

138.  Skin contains which type of glands largely

a.        Apocrine and sweat glands

b.       Ecocrine and sweat glands

c.        Holocrine and sweat glands

d.       Sebacious and sweat glands

139.  Acute flaccid paralysis is suddenly caused by

a.        Hypercalcemia

b.       Hypocalcemia

c.        Hyperkalemia

d.       Hypokalemia

140.  In a patient with polyuria and polydipsia with passage of dilutes urine is suffering from abnormality involving

a.        Aldosterone

b.       ADH

c.        Insulin

d.       Growth hormone

141.  Chlamydia is best treated by

a.        Tetracycline

b.       Ampicillin

c.        Gentamycin

d.       Cephalexin

142.  True about competitive inhibitor is

a.        Decrease in Km and Vmax

b.       Decrease in Vmax and Km is same

c.        Increase in Km and Vmax is same

d.       Decrease in Km and Vmax is same

143.  Best drug to potentiate DOPA is

a.        Pyridoxine

b.       Carbidopa

c.        Pergolide

d.       Amantadine

144.  Current modes of investigation for infertility to check functioning of tubes are all of the following except

a.        Air insufflation

b.       Sonosalpingogography

c.        Hysterosalpingography

d.       Laproscopic chromotubation

145.  Kernicterus is caused by

a.        Bilirubin monoglucoronide

b.       Albumin bound bilirubin

c.        Unbound bilirubin

d.       Bilirubin diglucoronide

146.  Mechanism of action of cluvalinic acid is

a.        Inhibits cell wall synthesis

b.       Inhibits beta lactamase

c.        Acts on protein synthesis

d.       Causes miss reading of DNA

147.  Prolactin secretion is inhibited by

a.        Growth hormone

b.       Stomatostatin

c.        Dopamine

d.       TSH

148.  In increased stage of endometrial carcinoma treatment given is

a.        Tamoxifen

b.       Medroxyprogesterone

c.        Danazol

d.       Methotrexate

 

149.  Normal fluoride level for drinking purposes is in mgs/lt

a.        0.08-0.5

b.       0.8-1.2

c.        1-1.75

d.       1.5-3.5

150.  Epinephrine can be used in all of the following except

a.        Anaphylactic shock

b.       Chronic bronchial asthma

c.        Cardiac resuscitation

d.       To prevent local bleed

151.  The most common nerve involved in leprosy is

a.        Ulnar nerve

b.       Lateral popliteal nerve

c.        Sciatic nerve

d.       Radial nerve

152.  Dangerous area of face is

a.        Olfactory bulb

b.       Woodruffs area

c.        Littles area

d.       Inferior turbinate

153.  During surgery involving abdomen ligation of a small vein can cause death of the patient

a.        Coronary vein

b.       Superior mesenteric vein

c.        Splenic vein

d.       IVC

154.  The main blood supply of the small gut is

a.        Celiac axis

b.       Superior mesenteric vein

c.        Inferior mesenteric vein

d.       Middle colic vein

155.  The external ear develops from which of the following

a.        1st branchial arch

b.       2nd branchial arch

c.        1st branchia cleft

d.       2nd branchial cleft

156.  Division of nuclear material occurs in which of the following stages

a.        Metaphase I

b.       Prophase I

c.        Anaphase

d.       Prophase II

157.  Rotation of radius occurring without extension and flexion at the elbow joint is caused by

a.        Anconeus and supinator

b.       Brachioradialis and Brachialis

c.        Pronator quadratus and pronator teres

d.       Triceps and Biceps brachii

158.  Depression of mandible is caused by

a.        Temporalis

b.       Lateral pterygoid

c.        Medial pterygoid

d.       Masseter

159.  Which of the following amino acids undergoes hydroxylation and is involved in the formation of collagen

a.        Proline

b.       Tryptophan

c.        Phenylalanine

d.       Cystiene

160.  Which of the following are true about nerve action conduction

a.        On activation there is influx of potassium and efflux of sodium

b.       It is decremental in nature

c.        It does not follow all or none law

d.       It requires a threshold stimulus to be activated

161.  The most physiological operation for chronic duodenal ulcer is

a.        Highly selective Vagotomy

b.       Truncal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy

c.        Antrectomy and truncal vagotomy

d.       Selective vagotomy

162.  The least recurrence rate is seen in which of the following procedures for peptic ulcer

a.        Trancal vagotomy and gastrojejunostomy

b.       Highly selective vagotomy

c.        Trancal vagotomy and antectomy

d.       Selective vagotomy

163.  Most of the long bones in the body have which of the following type of joints

a.        Synarthrosis

b.       Dyarthrosis

c.        Amphiarthrosis

d.       Synostosis

164.  The fungi present in the reticuloendothelial system is

a.        Candida

b.       Histoplasma capsulatum

c.        Sporothrix

d.       Aspergillus

165.  Alpha waves are of which of the following frequencies

a.        7-13 Hz

b.       10-20 Hz

c.        15-25 Hz

d.       4-5 Hz

166.  In a patient who is resting but is awake and has his closed will show which of the following readings on EEG

a.        Alpha waves

b.       Beta waves

c.        Theta waves

d.       Delta waves

167.  Which of the following are true about neutrophils

a.        Constitute 5-10% of leucocytes

b.       Are phagocytic cells

c.        Are increased in chronic inflammation

d.       Are present mainly in extravascular regions

168.  In a patient suffering through trauma involving regions that are extra abdominal can still cause death due to which of the following reasons

a.        Splenic rupture

b.       Acute dilatation of stomach

c.        Fat embolism

d.       Intestinal infarction

169.  All of the following are true regarding Angle closure glaucoma except

a.        Vertically dilated pupil

b.       Deep AC

c.        Ciliary congestion

d.       Haloes may appear

170.  All of the following are true about angle closure glaucoma except

a.        Prodormal phase initially

b.       Atrpoine is used in treatment

c.        Gonioscopy is used to visualize angle

d.       Iridotomy is required

171.  Which of the following drugs cause photoxicity

a.        Phenytoin

b.       Amiodarone

c.        Digoxin

d.       Verapamil

172.  Erythema Nodosum is caused by

a.        Sulphonamides

b.       Phenytoin

c.        Phenylbutazone

d.       Penecillin

 

 

173.  Which of the following cytokines synthesized by the LOX enzyme is involved in  chemotaxis

a.        B4

b.       C4

c.        D4

d.       E4

174.  True about TxA2 synthesized by endothelium is

a.        Inhibits platelet aggregation

b.       Causes vasoconstriction

c.        All of the above

d.       None of the above

175.  Benzathine penicillin is used in treatment of

a.        Endocarditis

b.       Septicemia

c.        Primary syphilis

d.       UTI

176.  Most common cause of infection in surgical wounds is

a.        Staph epidermidis

b.       Staph aureus

c.        Pseudomonas

d.       Streptococci

177.  Chronic exposure with which of the following particle size causes chronic lung disease

a.        0.5-3 microns

b.       5-10 microns

c.        3-5 microns

d.       0.01-0-5 microns

178.  Which of the following is a common child affective viruses

a.        Adenovirus

b.       CMV

c.        Parainfleunza

d.       Herpes simplex

179.  Narcolepsy is

a.        Narcotic induced epilepsy

b.       Narcotic induced depression

c.        Attacks of sleep and paralysis

d.       Narcotic withdrawal reaction

180.  The best way to gauge the IQ of a child is by looking at

a.        Gross motor development

b.       Fine motor development

c.        Psychosocial

d.       Language

 

 

181.  Cherry red spot is seen in

a.        CRVO

b.       CRAO

c.        Branch retinal vien occlusion

d.       Papillodema

182.  Cherry red spot is commonly seen in

a.        Gauchers disease

b.       Taysachs disease

c.        Hurlers syndrome

d.       Von gierkes disease

183.  Cubitus varus deformity occurs most commonly due to

a.        Malunited  lateral condyle #

b.       Malunited supracondylar #

c.        Medial epicondyle #

d.       Elbow dislocation

184.  Vibices is another term for

a.        Subcutaneous hypostasis

b.       Arboresent markings

c.        Lichtenburgs markings

d.       Joule burns

185.  When permanent canine appears it correlates with the appearance of which of the following ossification centers

a.        Olecranon

b.       Pissiform

c.        Patella

d.       Head of femur

186.  In comparison of famotidine to cimetidine. They differ in all of the following except

a.        Antiandrogenic effect

b.       Oral bioavailability when given along with food

c.        Duration of action

d.       Side effects

187.  Posterior pituitary stores and releases which of the following hormones

a.        TSH and GH

b.       TSH and LH

c.        ADH and Prolactin

d.       Oxytocin and vassopressin

188.  Invitro fertilization is mainly used when the cause of infertility is due to

a.        Oligospermia

b.       Tubal abnormaities

c.        Anovulation

d.       Cord factor

189.  Regarding water absorption in PCT all of the following are seen in except

a.        60% reabsorbed

b.       Depends on ADH

c.        Passive

d.       Active absorption of solutes

 

190.  IV bicarbonate is given in

a.        Metabolic alkalosis

b.       Metabolic acidosis

c.        Head injury

d.       Uncompensated respiratory acidosis

191.  Normal anion gap acidosis is seen in

a.        Chronic renal failure

b.       Diarrhea

c.        Diabetic ketoacidosis

d.       Methanol poisoning

192.  The endothelial cells have specialized receptors for which of following

a.        HDL

b.       LDL

c.        Oxidized LDL

d.       Oxidized VLDL

193.  Most common parotid tumor is

a.        Pleomorphic adenoma

b.       Adenocarcinoma

c.        Warthins tumor

d.       SCC

194.  The toxin implicated in lathyrism is

a.        Sanguinarine

b.       Beta oxalyl amino acid

c.        Pyrrazolidine

d.       Aflatoxin

195.  The enzyme required for the generation of the ammonium ion in the kidney is

a.        Glutamate dehydrogenase

b.       Glutamate aspartate transaminase

c.        Glutaminase

d.       Glutamate carboxylase

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