ALL INDIA PRE PG MOCK PG TEST

100 Questions, 1 hrs AIPPG.com



1) A foot has x, y & z , tarsal, metatarsal & pharyngeal bones respectively. x, y & z represent :

One answer only.
   a) 7,5 & 14
   b) 6, 5 & 12
   c) 7, 5 & 12
   d) 7, 4 & 14



2) Optic nerve is associated with :

One answer only.
   a) Telencephalon
   b) Diencephalon
   c) Mesencephalon
   d) Melencephalon



3) Vein draining into cavernous sinus is :

One answer only.
   a) Basal vein
   b) Deep Middle Cerebral
   c) Great Cerebral Vein
   d) Superficial Middle Cerebral Vein



4) Myoclonus (Involuntary movement) is associated with :

One answer only.
   a) Caudate
   b) Putamen
   c) Subthalamus
   d) Reticular formation



5) Subdural & Epidural Hematomas are x & y respectively. x & y represent :

One answer only.
   a) Arterial & Venous
   b) Venous & arterial
   c) Both arterial
   d) Both venous



6) Triangular projection of Ethmoid bone that acts as the anterior attachment of the falx cerebri :

One answer only.
   a) Crista galli
   b) Psoterior edge of lesser wing of sphenoid
   c) Jugam of sphenoid
   d) Cribiform plate



7) Hydroxyethyl starch is a :

One answer only.
   a) Vasodilator
   b) Inotrope
   c) Plasma expander
   d) Diuretic



8) Anenploidy is due to :

One answer only.
   a) Non disjunction at meiosis
   b) Mosaicism
   c) Deletion
   d) Translocation



9) Apoptosis is prevented by :

One answer only.
   a) bcl - 2
   b) P53
   c) Cmyc
   d) ras



10) Source of RBC casts in urine :

One answer only.
   a) Bladder
   b) Pelvis
   c) Ureter
   d) Kidney



11) In low doses Aspirin acts on :

One answer only.
   a) TXA2
   b) PGI2
   c) Lipo oxygenase
   d) Cyclo oxygenase



12) Following are +ve feedback mechanism dependent except :

One answer only.
   a) LH surge
   b) Histamine, gastrin stimulating HCL production
   c) Ca2+ in coagulation
   d) Autocatalytic - Coagulator



13) Dietary fibre has :

One answer only.
   a) Collagen
   b) Fectin
   c) Keratin
   d) Elastin



14) Glucose is synthesised from all except :

One answer only.
   a) Glycerol
   b) Palmitate
   c) Pyruvate
   d) Amino acids



15) Normal stool fat is :

One answer only.
   a) < 6gm / day
   b) < 7gm / day
   c) < 8gm / day
   d) < 9gm / day



16) Clothing factor not found in liver is :

One answer only.
   a) II
   b) VII
   c) VIII
   d) X



17) Glycophorin is seen in :

One answer only.
   a) Erythrocytes
   b) Enterocytes
   c) Hepatocytes
   d) Lymphocytes



18) Repeated stimulation of pain receptors causes increase in pain because of :

One answer only.
   a) Decrease receptive field of summation
   b) Increased threshold frequency
   c) Decreased reflex time
   d) Wind up which is an increment in EPSP



19) Transection of pyramids atlower end of medulla causes all features except :

One answer only.
   a) Spasticity
   b) Brisk tendon reflexes
   c) Incoordination
   d) Involuntary movement



20) pH = 7.2 ; PO2 = 65 ; PCO2 = 50 ; HCO3- = 20 ; B.E = 8, cause is :

One answer only.
   a) Metabolic acidosis
   b) Respiratory acidosis
   c) Respiratory with metabolic acidosis
   d) Respiratory alkalosis with compensated met. acidosis



21) Neuronophagia is seen in :

One answer only.
   a) Amebic meningitis
   b) Poliomyelitis
   c) T.B. meningoencephilitis
   d) Cerebral Malaria



22) "Worst headache of my life " is associated with :

One answer only.
   a) Trigeminal neuralgia
   b) Brain tumour
   c) Berry aneurysm
   d) Migraine



23) True regarding Golbi is :

One answer only.
   a) Made up of macrophages filled with bacteria
   b) Degenerated Neural tissue
   c) Consists of neutrophils
   d) Lipid laden macrophages



24) Thymectomy in neonate leads to :

One answer only.
   .a) Decreased paracortical areas
   b) Decreased germinal center
   c) Increased production of lymphocytes
   d) Decreased antibody production



25) Mefipristone is :

One answer only.
   a) Competitive inhibitor of progestin
   b) Non competitive inhibitor of progestin
   c) Abortifacient
   d) Toxicity - heavy bleeding



26) Of the statins - less likely to cause myopathy :

One answer only.
   a) Lova statin
   b) Siunvastatin
   c) Parva statin
   d) Parva & Fluva statin



27) Energy required for one peptide bond formation :

One answer only.
   a) 3
   b) 4
   c) 5
   d) 6



28) Following match are true except :

One answer only.
   a) Intrinsic factor & parietal cells
   b) Gastric acid & parietal cells
   c) Pepsin & parietal cells
   d) Gastric & G cells of antrum & duodenum



29) A patient with fever of 103 degrees F, bradycardia & leucopenia probably has :

One answer only.
   a) Brucellosis
   b) Typhoid
   c) Malaria
   d) Meliodosis



30) The most probable organism causing food poisoning in a child who has eaten ice cream 16 - 18 hrs earlier is :

One answer only.
   a) Salmonella typhimurium
   b) Cl. Botulinum
   c) Cl. Perfringes
   d) Staph. Aureus



31) True about mycobacterium tuberculosis is :

One answer only.
   a) Strict aerobe
   b) gram -ve
   c) Thin wall
   d) Curved rod & cocci



32) All of the following viruses are non cultivable except :

One answer only.
   a) Parvovirus
   b) Rubella
   c) Rotavirus
   d) Norwalk virus



33) True about sterilization is :

One answer only.
   a) Spores are destroyed by drying
   b) Soiled dressing is sterilized by hot air oven
   c) Surgical instruments are sterilized by boiling
   d) Vaccines sterilized by seitz filters



34) True about trichuris trichura is all except :

One answer only.
   a) Lines in jejunum & duodenum
   b) Causes appendicitis
   c) Eggs are bile stained
   d) Eggs float in sat. salt solution



35) CRP is :

One answer only.
   a) An antibody
   b) Derived from pneumococcus
   c) Increased in penumococcus infection
   d) Detected by precipitation reaction with carbohydrate antigen



36) Malignant transformation in Gastric ulcers is about :

One answer only.
   a) 2 - 3%
   b) 4 - 5%
   c) Not related at all
   d) 5 - 6%



37) Angiodysplasia is most common in :

One answer only.
   a) Ascending colon
   b) Transverse colon
   c) Descending colon
   d) Rectum



38) Most common site of bleeding from angiodysplasia :

One answer only.
   a) Ascending colon
   b) Transverse colon
   c) Descending colon
   d) Rectum



39) True about Wiskott Aldrich Syndrome is all except :

One answer only.
   a) Platelet < 30,000 / ml & small
   b) ¯ IgM, ¯ isohemaglutinins, normal IgG & low CD8+ count (in 61%)
   c) IgE & IgA - normal or elevated
   d) Corticosteroids & Immunosuppressant drugs for treatment in WAS



40) Wilms syndrome is associated with all except :

One answer only.
   a) Paternal occupation
   b) Aniridia
   c) Cryptorchidism is not seen
   d) Drasti's syndrome



41) A 12 yrs old girl is diagnosed with a cerebellar tumour , which is composed of small cells with hyperchromatic nuclei & scant cytoplasm. This tumour most likely represents :

One answer only.
   a) Ependymoma
   b) Medulloblastoma
   c) Meningioma
   d) Oligodendrogliona



42) All of the following are true characteristics of fast twitch muscles except :

One answer only.
   a) Powerful contraction
   b) Abundant Mitochondria
   c) Rapid lactate accumulation
   d) Abundant white fibers



43) Which of the following is structurally & functionally similar to Calmodium :

One answer only.
   a) Actin
   b) Myosin
   c) Tropomyosin
   d) Troponin C



44) Following is True for suppressor T cells except :

One answer only.
   a) - ve feedback of TH cells
   b) Play a role in tolerance
   c) Memory cells
   d) Prevent activation of complement cascade



45) Islet cell lesions in type I D.M are following except :

One answer only.
   a) Inflammation
   b) Loss of beta cells
   c) Amyloidosis (70%)
   d) Fibrosis



46) Features favouring Crohn's disease are :

One answer only.
   a) Rectum involvement
   b) Cobblestone appearance
   c) Thin intestinal wall
   d) Crypt abscess



47) All are 2's of Meckel's diverticulum except :

One answer only.
   a) 2% poplin
   b) 5cm long
   c) 2 feet from colon
   d) Always in < 2yrs old when symptomatic



48) What is the useful function of nitrogen in the body :

One answer only.
   a) Prevents atelectasis
   b) Decreases rate of combustion
   c) Delays alveolar collapse
   d) All of the above



49) Ventilation perfusion ratio is max in :

One answer only.
   a) Apex
   b) Base
   c) Middle zone
   d) Same all over



50) Macula densa is :

One answer only.
   a) A specialized region of afferent arteriole
   b) A specialized region of distal tubule
   c) Area bounded by afferent arteriole , macula densa & glomerulus
   d) Is the principle source of renin



51) False about Albumin :

One answer only.
   a) + 3.6nm radius
   b) 70,000MW
   c) Glycoprotein
   d) Protein which can get glycosylated in DoM



52) All are defects of collagen except :

One answer only.
   a) Alports Syndrome
   b) Ehlors Danlos Syndrome
   c) Marfan's syndrome
   d) Osteogenesis imperfect



53) All are autosomal dominant except :

One answer only.
   a) Marfan's Syndrome
   b) Ehlors Danlos Syndrome
   c) Retinoblastoma
   d) Tay Sach's



54) True regarding Scurvy is :

One answer only.
   a) Skeletal changes can never develop in infants
   b) Retrobulbar, subarachnoid & intracerebral hemorrhages can occur
   c) Collagen synthesis in normal
   d) Anemia is uncommon



55) Mausoni & S. japonicum infections have :

One answer only.
   a) Pseudopolyps may form in colon
   b) Surface of the liver is bumpy
   c) Pipe stem fibrosis
   d) All of the above



56) Ewing's sarcoma resembles :

One answer only.
   a) Lymphoma
   b) Rhabdomyosarcoma
   c) Oat cell carcinoma
   d) All



57) Ewing sarcoma true is :

One answer only.
   a) Cells are rich in fat
   b) t (8 ; 14)
   c) Arises in diaphysis flat bones
   d) t (11 ; 22)



58) Antikshaw cells

One answer only.
   a) Pathognomonic of R.F.
   b) Abundant amphophilic cytoplasm
   c) Caterpiller cells are not the same
   d) Seen in Aschoff bodies



59) Vegetations on both the sides of valves is seen in :

One answer only.
   a) RHD
   b) NBTE
   c) LSE
   d) IE



60) Following is true about Fibrous Dysplasia except :

One answer only.
   a) May involve single bone
   b) May involve multiple bone
   c) May involve all the bones
   d) Polyostotic disease with precocious puberty



61) A lesion in femur shows sheets of compact polyhedral chondroblasts that have well degined cytoplasmic borders. Tumour cells are surrounded by hyaline matrix in a lace like fashion. Chicken wire pattern of calcified matrix & osteoclast like gaint cells are also seen :

One answer only.
   a) Chondroblastoma
   b) Chondroma
   c) Chondrosarcoma
   d) Osteoma



62) Germicitabine is a :

One answer only.
   a) Purine analog
   b) Pyramidine analog
   c) Methyl Hydrazine derivative
   d) Alkylating agent



63) Succimer is :

One answer only.
   a) Antineoplastic
   b) Antiseptic
   c) Chelator
   d) Organic solvent



64) Penicillamine is used in all except :

One answer only.
   a) Cu, Hg & pb poisoning
   b) Cystinuria
   c) RoA
   d) Alcoholic cirrhosis



65) Drug of choice for cl. Difficle infection :

One answer only.
   a) Metronidazole oral
   b) Metronidazole i.v.
   c) Vancomycin oral
   d) Vancomycin i.v.



66) Drug of choice for Camphylobacter jejuni :

One answer only.
   a) Ciprofloxacin b) Erythromycin
   c) Clindamycin
   d) Chloramphenicol



67) Which is the best time for administration of antibiotics in high risk L.S.C.S :

One answer only.
   a) During preanaesthetic medication
   b) At the time of delivery of ant. shoulder
   c) Post cord clamp
   d) Post operative



68) Which is not a clean contaminated surgery :

One answer only.
   a) Hysterectomy
   b) Appendicectomy
   c) Head & neck surgery
   d) Orthopaedic surgery



69) Most radioresistant phase of cell cycle :

One answer only.
   a) M
   b) S
   c) G1
   d) G2



70) Non subtype selective beta antagonist which is an antioxidant antagonist too :

One answer only.
   a) Acebutalol
   b) Pindolol
   c) Carvidelol
   d) Cardilol



71) Following is true about non competitive antagonism except :

One answer only.
   a) Causes a shift of Dose response curve to right with depression of max effect
   b) Irreversibility binds to the same site as agonist
   c) Pseudoirreversibility binding also causes non competitive antagonism
   d) EC50 for the agonist increases linearly with the conc. Of antagonist



72) Allosteric effect :

One answer only.
   a) Binds to a different site
   b) Can be inhibitory
   c) Can be stimulatory
   d) Is not saturable



73) Following are side effects of ACE inhibitors except :

One answer only.
   a) Fetopathic effect
   b) Neutropenia
   c) Glycosuria
   d) Hypokalemia



74) ACE inhibitors cause teratogenicity when taken in :

One answer only.
   a) 8th week
   b) 1st trimester
   c) 2nd trimester only
   d) 2nd & 3rd trimester



75) Differentiation between T cells & B cells is by all of the following except :

One answer only.
   a) T cells from SRBC or E rosette
   b) B cells form EAC rossette
   c) B cells have CD3 receptors
   d) B cells have surface immunoglobulins



76) All are used in Ag - Ab complex except :

One answer only.
   a) Van der Waal's forces
   b) Ionic bonds
   c) Covalent bonds
   d) H bonding



77) HIV gene coding for core :

One answer only.
   a) Gag
   b) pol
   c) Env
   d) vpu



78) Which of the following complement components is chemoattractant :

One answer only.
   a) C3a
   b) C4a
   c) C5a
   d) C3b



79) A biopsy should be sent to pathology in which of the following modes :

One answer only.
   a) Fixed in formalin
   b) Fixed in Alcohol
   c) Fresh in saline
   d) Frozen



80) Following are differences between s.k & t - PA except :

One answer only.
   a) Selective for fibrin clot
   b) Produces plasminemia
   c) Reduces mortality
   d) Causes allergic reaction



81) Which of the following doesn't have consistent influence on the Transition temperature of Membranes Tm :

One answer only.
   a) Cholesterol
   b) Saturated fatty acids
   c) Unsaturated fatty acids
   d) Integral membrane proteins



82) Maximum permeability through Lipid bilayer is for :

One answer only.
   a) Na+
   b) Glucose
   c) Urea
   d) Indole



83) Shepherd crook deformity is seen in :

One answer only.
   a) Osteopetrosis
   b) Fibrous dysplasia
   c) Rheumatoid arthritis
   d) Osteoarthritis



84) Dead bone in osteomyelitis is :

One answer only.
   a) Periosteal reaction
   b) Cloaca
   c) Involucrum
   d) Sequestrum



85) Tom smith arthritis is :

One answer only.
   a) Arthritis of knee in Infants
   b) Athritis of Hip in infants
   c) Arthritis in Tuberculosis
   d) Form of Rheumatoid arthritis



86) All are seen in congenital syphilis except :

One answer only.
   a) Periostitis
   b) Metaphysitis
   c) Dactylitis
   d) Epiphysitis



87) Charcot joints include :

One answer only.
   a) Destruction of bone
   b) Dense bone
   c) Deformity
   d) Debris



88) Sausage digit is seen in :

One answer only.
   a) Tuberculosis
   b) Psoriasis
   c) Rheumatoid arthritis
   d) Reiter disease



89) The least common association of kussumal's sign among the following is :

One answer only.
   a) Severe right sided heart failure
   b) Right ventricular M.I.
   c) Tricuspic stenosis
   d) Cardiac tamponade



90) A 55yrs old male, chronic smoker, known diabetic for 5 years has presented in casualty with history of chest pain for past 90 minutes radiating to lower jaw with diaphoresis & uneasiness. ECG reveals ST depression in leads V2-5 with T wave inversion. His CPk - MB levels are 7 times the normal. All of the following are indicated except :

One answer only.
   a) Nitroglycerin infusion
   b) Oxygen therapy
   c) Streptokinase
   d) Metoprolol



91) The diffusion capacity measured as DLco is decreased in all except :

One answer only.
   a) Emphysema
   b) Bronchial asthma
   c) Interstitial lung disease
   d) Primary pulmonary hypertension



92) The commonest pathological variety of carcinoma lung in patients of asbestosis is :

One answer only.
   a) Squamous cell carcinoma
   b) Bronchoalveolar carcinoma
   c) Adenocarcinoma
   d) Large cell carcinoma



93) A 30yrs old alcoholic male has developed sudden attack of high fever, rigors, cough and foul smelling sputum of 2 weeks duration. On examination there is dullness with bronchial breathsound in right mammary area. Skiogram chest reveals single rounded opacity with no fluid level in Right mid zone. The likely diagnosis is :

One answer only.
   a) Infected hydatid cyst
   b) Amoebic lung abscess
   c) Bronchiectasis
   d) Nectrotizing pneumonia



94) All of the following are features of Reno vascular hypertension except :

One answer only.
   a) Hypokalemia
   b) Mild proteinuria
   c) Loss of cortico medullary differentiation
   d) Abdominal bruit



95) A 22yrs old male, known case of Focal glomerulosclerosis has presented to you with history of reduced urine output, rapid breathing & swelling feet for last 10days. On examination patient is mildly anaemic. Indications of doing a dialysis in the patient include all except :

One answer only.
   a) B urea of 150%mg
   b) Severe hyperkalemia refractory of medical therapy
   c) A pericardial rub
   d) Severe metabolic acidosis



96) Renal osteodystrophy is associated with all except :

One answer only.
   a) Rugger jersey spine
   b) Hypoparathyroidism
   c) Hypocalcemia
   d) Hyperphosphatemia



97) A 35yrs old male suddenly vomits 300ml of blood. On examination he is not jaundiced, abdomen is slightly distended, soft & not tender. Liver is not palpable but spleen is palpable 3cm below costal margin. There is no shifting dullness and bowel sounds are increased on auscultation. The likely diagnosis is :

One answer only.
   a) Acute gastric erosion
   b) Chronic duodenal ulcer
   c) Carcinoma stomach
   d) Esophageal varices



98) A child of 12 yrs of age presented with anaemia, neutropenia, osteopaenia & poor development of gonads. The likely nutrient deficiency in this child will be :

One answer only.
   a) Zinc
   b) Copper
   c) Proteins
   d) Selenium



99) Which of the following vaccines is not contraindicated in a pregnant female : a) German measles

One answer only.
   b) Measles
   c) Hepatitis B
   d) Mumps



100) All of the following may be useful in DDT poisoning except :

One answer only.
   a) Phenobarbitone
   b) Gastric lavage
   c) Atropine
   d) Purgatives



101) Characteristic features of a ' Standard Normal Curve' are all except :

One answer only.
   a) It is bell shaped
   b) The standard deviation is zero
   c) The mean, mode & median all coincide
   d) The area under the curve is 1


Test devloped at AIPPG.com Technical Section with help from Leicester University UK .
Test
WEB Version ©AIPPG.com 2002-3 All Rights Reserved worldwide.
AIIMS section PLAB section ALL INDIA PG 2003 SECTION

io" name="Q98Response" value="2">    d) Mumps


100) All of the following may be useful in DDT poisoning except :

One answer only.
   a) Phenobarbitone
   b) Gastric lavage
   c) Atropine
   d) Purgatives



101) Characteristic features of a ' Standard Normal Curve' are all except :

One answer only.
   a) It is bell shaped
   b) The standard deviation is zero
   c) The mean, mode & median all coincide
   d) The area under the curve is 1


Test devloped at AIPPG.com Technical Section with help from Leicester University UK .
Test
WEB Version ©AIPPG.com 2002-3 All Rights Reserved worldwide.
AIIMS section PLAB section ALL INDIA PG 2003 SECTION