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PGI MCQ Questions June 12 2002
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(pgi
- pgimer)Post Graduate Institute, Chandigarh June 12 2002 Recollected Questions
1. ALL
is predisposed to by
a.
Blooms syndrome
b.
Fanconi’s syndrome
c.
Ataxic telengectasia
d.
Turners syndrome
e.
Diamond blackfan syndrome
2. Klinefelters
syndrome is associated with
a.
XXY
b.
Male phenotype
c.
Infertility
d.
Azoospermia
e.
Bar body absent
3. True
about testicular feminization is/are
a.
Testes present
b.
Female phenotype
c.
XY
d.
Secondary amennorhea
e.
Uterus present
4. The
activity of the following enzymes is decreased in starvation
a.
Acy carnitine tranferase
b.
Lipoprotien lipase
c.
Citrate cleavage enzyme
d.
Fatty acid synthase
e.
Phosphoglucomutase
5. Regarding
laryngomalacia true is/are
a.
Most common cause of stridor in newborn
b.
Sigma shaped epiglottis
c.
Inspiratory stridor
d.
Most require surgery
e.
Stridor worsens on lying in prone position
6. When
acute appendicitis is suspected it can be confirmed by
a.
Clinical examination
b.
Ultrasound
c.
CT scan
d.
TLC and DLC
e.
Upper GI endoscopy
7. A
female presenting with history of rash and polyarthritis. It is associated with
a.
Antinuclear antibody
b.
RA factor is positive
c.
Bad obstetric history
d.
Increased PTT
e.
HLA B 27
8. All
of the following are blood buffers
except
a.
Phosphates
b.
Plasma proteins
c.
Bicarbonates
d.
Oxygen
e.
Heamoglobin
9. Supine
hypotension is seen in
a.
Obesity
b.
Ascites
c.
Abdominal tumors
d.
Pregnancy
e.
Bradycardia
10. Lipid lowering
drugs act on
a.
HMG coA synthetase
b.
HMG coA reductase
c.
Mevalonate kinase
d.
Lipase
e.
Acyl coA transferase
11. Sterilizing agents
include
a.
Cyclohexidene
b.
Ethelyne oxide
c.
Diethyl ether
d.
Gallamine
12. A patient
presenting with a fasting blood sugar of 180 and post prandial sugar of 260.
The management in his case include
a.
Glibenclamide
b.
Diet therapy + exercise
c.
Diet therapy + exercise + metphormin
d.
Insulin
e.
Chlorpropamide
13. IgE is secreted by
a.
Mast cells
b.
Eosinophils
c.
Plasma cells
d.
Basophils
e.
Neutrophils
14. Classical
complement pathway is activated by
a.
IgG
b.
IgA
c.
IgM
d.
IgE
e.
IgD
15. 3rd
nerve palsy is caused by
a.
Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
b.
Mid brain infarct
c.
Lateral medullary lesions
d.
Pons infarct
e.
Cerebellar tumors
16. Bilateral enlarged
kidneys are seen in
a.
Chronic glomerulonephritis
b.
Pyelonephritis
c.
Benign nephrosclerosis
d.
Polycystic kidneys
e.
Amylodosis
17. Trophic ulcers are
caused by
a.
Leprosy
b.
Deep vien thrombosis
c.
Burgers disease
d.
Secondary syphilis
18. Burgers disease is
associated with
a.
Smoking
b.
Poor nutrition
c.
Alcoholic
d.
Prolonged standing
e.
Superficial thrombophlebitis
19. Hormones secreted
by adrenal medulla are
a.
Glucagon
b.
Epinephrine
c.
Cortisol
d.
Insulin
e.
Thyroxine
20. Hemithorax opacity
with contralateral shift of mediastinum is
a.
Massive pleural effusion
b.
Consolidation
c.
Collapse of lung
d.
Large mass
e.
Pneumothorax
21. Substrate level
phosphorylation is seen in association with
a.
Succinate dehydrgenase
b.
Alpha ketogluterate dehydrogenase
c.
Succinate thiokinase
d.
Malanate dehydrogenase
e.
Cis-aconitase
22. Alkylating agents
include
a.
Doxorubicin
b.
Chlorambucil
c.
Vincristine
d.
Nitrogen mustard
e.
Busulphan
23. Submucous glands
are present in
a.
Oesophagus
b.
Doudenum
c.
Stomach
d.
Ascending colon
e.
Ileum
24. True regarding
Pendreds syndrome is
a.
Consistently associated with deafness
b.
Hypothyroidism
c.
Mutation in the connexion coding region
d.
Mutation in chromosome 21 causing reecptor defect
25. True about carotid
body tumor is
a.
Non chromaffin paraganglioma
b.
Good prognosis
c.
Rarely metastasize
d.
Is similar to mixed parotid tumor
26. Burkits lymphoma
is associated with
a.
B cell lymphoma
6-14
translocation
b.
Can present with abdominal mass
c.
Raditherapy is used in treatment
27. Hepatic infarcts
are seen in
a.
Preeclampsia
b.
Chronic venous congestion
c.
Budd chiarri syndrome
d.
Sepsis
e.
Extrahepatic biliary atresia
28. Anti psychotics
used in treatment of shizophrenia are
a.
Halopredol
b.
Chlorpromozine
c.
Immipramine
d.
Olanzapine
e.
Resperidone
29. Interventricular
septum is developed from
a.
Conus septum
b.
Endocardial cushion defect
c.
Left horn of sinus venosus
d.
Ostium septum
e.
Truncus septum
30. Physiological
changes in pregnancy are
a.
Insulin level is increased
b.
There is increased BMR
c.
Hypothyroidism
d.
Growth hormone levels are decreased
31. High hepatic
extraction ration is seen
a.
Propranolol
b.
Lidocaine
c.
Diazepam
d.
Phenytoin
e.
Theophylline
32. The amino acid
which is associated with atherosclerosis
a.
Arginine
b.
Homocysteine
c.
Cysteine
d.
Tryptophan
e.
Alanine
33. Varicose viens are
seen in
a.
Deep vein thrombosis
b.
Superficial venous thrombosis
c.
AV fistula
d.
Prolonged standing
e.
Hypertension
34. Superficial
perineal muscles include
a.
Superficial transverse peroneii
b.
Bulbospongiosis
c.
Ischiocavernosis
d.
Iliococcygeous
e.
Pubococcygeous
35. The visual pathway
consists of all of the following except
a.
Optic tract
b.
Geniculocalcerine fissure
c.
Lateral geniculate body
d.
Inferior colliculous
e.
Pretectal region
36. Plantar flexion is
brought about by which of the following muscles
a.
Plantaris
b.
Flexor hallucis longus
c.
Tibialis anterior
d.
Peroneus brevis
e.
Soleus
37. Adductors of the
vocal cords include
a.
Posterior cricoaretenoids
b.
Cricothyroid
c.
Anterior cricoaretenoids
d.
Aretenoepiglottis
e.
Transverse cricoaretenoids
38. Branches of
anterior internal iliac arteries include
a.
Posterior gluteal
b.
Uterine
c.
Obturator
d.
Pudendal
e.
Iliolumbar
39. In a CT scan cut
section at the level of the celiac trunk, which of the following structures can
be identified
a.
Pancreas
b.
Gall bladder
c.
Inferior vena cava
d.
Duodenum
e.
Portal vien
40. In oculomotor
nerve palsy, which of the following causes can be implicated
a.
Posterior communicating artery aneurysm
b.
Tolosa Hunt syndrome
c.
Midbrain infarct
d.
Pons Infarct
e.
Lateral medullary lesions
41. Branches of the
basilar artery include
a.
Posterior inferior cerebral artery
b.
Posterior cerebral artery
c.
Middle cerebral artery
d.
Posterior communicating artery
e.
Anterior cerebral artery
42. Regarding acid
secretion in the stomach
a.
Increased gastrin secretion increases secretion
b.
Secretin decreases secretion
c.
Fractional test meal is the best screening index
d.
H2 receptor blockers block acid secretion
e.
Total acid secretion reflects on the functional parietal cell
mass
43. In a patient with
transplanted heart which of the following are reasons for increased cardiac
output in him during exercise
a.
Reinnevation of the heart by the vagus
b.
Intrinsic mechanisms
c.
Increased epinephrine released from medulla
d.
Bainbridge reflex
e.
Due to Starlings effect
44. Regarding the
renal excretion
a.
Sodium reabsorption occurs in the DCT
b.
Pottassium is both excreted and reabsorbed in the tubules
c.
Heamoglobin is not excerted in the glomerulus as it is a large
molecule
d.
Glucose is reabsorbed in the DCT
e.
Amino acids are reabsorbed in the collecting ducts
45. The
histopathological features of Shock include
a.
Acute tubular necrosis
b.
Lung infarcts
c.
Depletion of lipids in adrenal medulla
d.
Periportal hepatic necrosis
e.
Depletion of lymphocytes
46. In a patient which
of the following would cause rhabdomyolisis and myoglobulinuria
a.
Hyperpyrexia
b.
Viper snake venom
c.
Multiple hornet stings
d.
Prolonged coma
e.
Anemia
47. In the body
bilirubin is obtained from
a.
Heamoglobin
b.
Myoglobin
c.
Muscle
d.
Cholestrol
e.
Amino acids
48. All of the
following are required for fat digestion except
a.
Bile pigment
b.
Gastric lipase
c.
Colipase
d.
Bile salts
e.
Pancreatic lipase
49. Causes of sterile
pyuria without urinary tract infection include
a.
Cortical tubercular abcess
b.
Pyelonephritis
c.
Fungal infection
d.
Gonococcal infection
e.
Urolithiasis
50. Criteria for
diagnosis of multiple myeloma include
a.
Plasma cells in bone marrow greater then 30%
b.
Bence jones proteins
c.
Lytic bone lesions
d.
Decreased beta 2 microglobulins
e.
Rouleux formation in the blood
51. In a patient with
acute arsenic poisoning which of the following strictures would show
accumulation of arsenic
a.
Liver
b.
Bone marrow
c.
Skin
d.
Kidney
e.
Brain
52. Both hepatic and
renal failures can be caused by which of the following
a.
Paracetamol toxicity
b.
Carbon tetrachloride
c.
Arsenic
d.
Copper sulphate
e.
Silver nitrate
53. Chronic arsenic
poisoning causes
a.
Pure sensory neuropathy
b.
Pure Motor neuropathy
c.
Mixed motor and sensory neuropathy
d.
Painful neuropathy
e.
Hyperkeratosis
54. Widmarks formula
is used for estimation of
a.
Cocaine
b.
Arsenic
c.
Alcohol
d.
Carbon monoxide
e.
Lead
55. McNaughtens rule
is applicable in
a.
Calculating length of fetus
b.
In estimating stature
c.
In insanity
d.
In dactylography
e.
To detect metals
56. Not seen in
Wrights stain is
a.
Reticulocytes
b.
Basophilic stippling
c.
Heinz bodies
d.
Howell jolly bodies
e.
Clot rings
57. Motor neuropathy
is caused by
a.
Dapsone
b.
Cisplatin
c.
Arsenic
d.
Lead
e.
Hypothyroidism
58. Tardy ulnar nerve
palsy is caused by
a.
Supracondylar #
b.
Lateral condyle #
c.
Olecranon #
d.
Distal radioulnar dislocation
e.
Medial condylar #
59. Hb A2
is increased in
a.
Alpha thallessemia
b.
Iron deficiency anemia
c.
Beta thallessemia
d.
Sickle cell trait
e.
Megaloblastic anemia
60. Metaphysical
lesions seen commonly are
a.
Metaphyseal fractures
b.
Osteomyelitis
c.
Osteosarcoma
d.
Ewings sarcoma
e.
Osteoclastoma
61. True regarding
salmonella gastroenteritis include
a.
Mainly diagnosed by serology
b.
Blood and mucous are present in stools
c.
Caused via animal products
d.
Symptoms appear between 8 -48 hours
e.
The features are mainly due to exotoxin released
62. True regarding
E-Coli is/are
a.
The LT labile toxin in ETEC acts via cAMP
b.
In those types causing urinary infections the organism
attaches by pili antigen
c.
The ST stable toxin of ETEC is responsible for causation of
HUS
d.
The EIEC invasiveness is under plasmid control
e.
In EPEC the toxin helps in invasion of the organism
63. The sputum
examination under district TB control programme is done when the patient
presents with which of the following
a.
Cough for 1-2 weeks
b.
Cough for 3-4 weeks
c.
Heamoptysis
d.
Chest pain
e.
Intermittent fever
64. In cryptoccocal
infection the organism can be readily demonstrated by
a.
Albert’s stain
b.
India ink stain
c.
Giemsa stain
d.
Grams stain
e.
Zeil Niehlson stain
65. Regarding HSV 2
infection which of the following are correct
a.
Primary infection is usually wide spread
b.
Recurrent attacks occur due to latent infection
c.
Encephalitis is commonly caused by it
d.
Newborn acquires the infection via the birth canal or at the
time of labor
i.
Treatment is by acyclovir
66. IgE is secreted by
a.
Mast cells
b.
Eosinophils
c.
Basophils
d.
Plasma cells
e.
Neutrophils
67. The T helper cell
subtype attach to which of the following sites
a.
MHC I cells
b.
MHC II cells
c.
Processed peptide
d.
CD8
e.
Delta region
68. Apart from B
cells, T cells there is a distinct third type of lymphocytes. They are
a.
MHC cells
b.
NK cells
c.
Macrophages
d.
Neutrophils
e.
Eosinophils
69. All of the
following are antigen presenting cells except
a.
T cells
b.
B cells
c.
Fibroblasts
d.
Dendritic cells
e.
Langerhans cells
70. All of the
following are true regarding H pylori except
a.
Gram negative bacilli
b.
Strongly associated with Duodenal ulcer
c.
Associated with lymphoma
d.
C14 urea breath test is used in the diagnosis
e.
It should be eradicated in all cases when ever detected
71. Breast cancer is
seen more commonly in women who
a.
Consume non vegetarian food
b.
Have early menopause
c.
Smoke
d.
Have multiple sex partners
e.
Who did not breast feed their babies
72. Predisposing
factors in colonic cancer is/are
a.
Animal fat consumption
b.
Familial adenomatous polyposis
c.
Ulcerative colitis
d.
Crohns disease
e.
Tuberculosis
73. Abdominoperineal
resection is preferred in colorectal cancer based on which of the following
a.
Age of patient
b.
Distance from anal verge
c.
Fixity of tumor
d.
Hepatic metastasis
e.
Extent of tumor
74. Predisposing
factors for skin cancer are
a.
Lichen planus
b.
Leukoplakia
c.
Bowens disease
d.
Psoriasis
e.
Behcets disease
75. True regarding
ankylosing spondylitis is
a.
More common in men
b.
Associated with HLA B 27
c.
Associated with B8
d.
Affects only small joints
76. Squamous cell
carcinoma in bladder is predisposed to by
a.
Urolithiasis
b.
Shistosomiasis
c.
Persistent urachus
d.
Polyp
e.
Smoking
77. Restrictive
Fragment Length Polymorphism is used in the diagnosis of
a.
Thallessemia
b.
Sickle cell trait
c.
Gilbert’s syndrome
d.
Phenylketonuria
e.
Von Gierke’s disease
78. True regarding
Gilberts syndrome is/are
a.
Unconjugated hyperbilirubinemia
b.
Increased liver transaminases
c.
Bleeding tendencies
d.
Autoantibodies are present
79. Regarding cholestasis
of pregnancy which of the following is/are true
a.
Deep jaundice is present
b.
Pruritus is the 1st symptom
c.
Maximum during the third trimester
d.
Raised liver transaminases
80. Purpuric rashes
are seen in
a.
Dengue
b.
Borrelia
c.
Secondary syphilis
d.
Measles
e.
Typhoid
81. The most sensitive
structure in a cell for radiotherapy is
a.
Cell membrane
b.
Mitochondria membrane
c.
DNA
d.
Plasma membrane
e.
Cell enzymes
82. In spectroscop